The nurse understands that which medication has been used with some success in clients diagnosed with anorexia nervosa along with depression?
fluoxetine
sibutramine
carbamazepine
diazepam
The Correct Answer is A
a. fluoxetine: Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), has been used with some success in treating anorexia nervosa, especially when comorbid with depression. It can help with mood stabilization and reducing obsessive-compulsive behaviors related to food.
b. sibutramine: Sibutramine was an appetite suppressant used for weight loss, but it has been withdrawn from the market in many countries due to cardiovascular risks. It is not used for treating anorexia nervosa.
c. carbamazepine; Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant and mood stabilizer, primarily used for bipolar disorder and seizure disorders. It is not commonly used for anorexia nervosa.
d. diazepam: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used primarily for anxiety, muscle spasms, and seizures. It does not have a primary role in the treatment of anorexia nervosa and depression.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
a. Administer the 6mg Benztropine orally with a full glass of water on an empty stomach: Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to manage the extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) of antipsychotics. However, it's important to consult the healthcare provider before administering any additional medications.
b. Ask the healthcare provider to increase the dose of Haloperidol to assist with the side effect: Increasing the dose of Haloperidol might worsen the tardive dyskinesia symptoms.
c. Hold the dose of Haloperidol and notify the healthcare provider. (Correct) Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication with a known side effect of tardive dyskinesia, which manifests as involuntary facial and body movements. Stopping the medication and informing the provider is crucial to determine the best course of action, which might involve dose adjustment or switching medications
d. Explain to the client that the side effects should diminish in one to two weeks: Tardive dyskinesia can be a persistent side effect, and reassurance without addressing the medication is not helpful.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
a. 1030-1130: Insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin that typically peaks in 1-2 hours. Hypoglycemia is most likely to occur during the peak action time.
b. 1130-1230: This is beyond the typical peak action time for insulin aspart, making hypoglycemia less likely during this interval.
c. 1000: This falls within the typical peak action time of 1-2 hours for insulin aspart, making hypoglycemia possible but the interval is slightly too narrow to capture the full peak effect.
d. 0800-0830: Insulin aspart begins to act within 10-20 minutes, but hypoglycemia typically does not occur this soon after administration unless there is an issue with meal timing or dosage.
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