A child with cerebral palsy (CP) is taking baclofen, a relaxant. Which assessment finding indicates to the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is effective?
Increased appetite.
Sufficient urinary output.
Fewer temper outbursts.
Decreased muscular spasticity.
The Correct Answer is D
Rationale:
A. Increased appetite is not a direct therapeutic indicator of baclofen efficacy. While improved comfort from muscle relaxation might indirectly support better intake, the drug does not possess orexigenic properties. Nutritional status is monitored in cerebral palsy patients, but it remains unrelated to the specific pharmacological mechanism of this skeletal muscle relaxant.
B. Sufficient urinary output is a vital assessment of general physiological and renal function, yet it is not the target of baclofen therapy. Baclofen acts primarily on the central nervous system to inhibit monosynaptic and polysynaptic reflexes at the spinal level. Urinary monitoring ensures adequate drug clearance, but output levels do not reflect the medication's clinical success.
C. Fewer temper outbursts might suggest a reduction in physical discomfort, but baclofen is not an antianxiety or antipsychotic medication. Cerebral palsy may involve behavioral challenges, but the primary goal of this therapy is physical rather than psychological. Behavioral changes are subjective and do not provide a scientific measure of the drug’s specific muscle-relaxing influence.
D. Decreased muscular spasticity is the primary therapeutic goal for a client with cerebral palsy receiving baclofen. This medication functions as a gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) analogue, effectively reducing the transmission of excitatory signals that cause hypertonia and involuntary muscle contractions. A reduction in resistance to passive movement confirms that the drug is achieving its intended neuromuscular effect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is a type of diabetes that occurs during pregnancy. If euglycemia, or normal blood glucose levels, is not maintained during pregnancy, the fetus can be at risk for a number of complications. The greatest risk to the fetus in this situation is the development of a macrosomic newborn, or a newborn that is significantly larger than average. This occurs because the excess glucose in the mother's bloodstream is passed on to the fetus, leading to excessive fetal growth.
Macrosomia can lead to complications during delivery, such as shoulder dystocia, and can increase the risk of injury to both the mother and the baby. While low birth weight and preterm birth are also potential complications of GDM, macrosomia is considered the greatest risk to the fetus if euglycemia is not maintained. Cleft palate is not typically associated with GDM.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The first action the PN should take is to check the client's serum human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level. This hormone is produced by the placenta and can provide important information about the viability of the pregnancy.
Option B, verifying the date of the last menstrual cycle, can provide useful information about the gestational age of the pregnancy but is not the first priority.
Option C, repeating a urine pregnancy test, can confirm the presence of a pregnancy but does not provide information about its viability.
Option D, inquiring about the last occurrence of intercourse, is not relevant to addressing the client's immediate concern of vaginal bleeding.
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