Which of the following would be essential to implement to prevent late postpartum hemorrhage? Select one:
Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness.
Manually removing the placenta at delivery.
Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically.
Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness. This is because inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness is a nursing intervention that can prevent late postpartum hemorrhage, which is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs more than 24 hours but less than 12 weeks after delivery. Late postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by retained placental fragments, subinvolution of the uterus, infection, or coagulation disorders. Inspecting the placenta after delivery for intactness can help identify and remove any retained placental fragments that may interfere with uterine contraction and involution, which are essential for hemostasis.
Choice B Reason: Manually removing the placenta at delivery. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an inappropriate and risky intervention that can cause late postpartum hemorrhage. Manually removing the placenta at delivery is a procedure that involves inserting a hand into the uterus and detaching the placenta from the uterine wall. Manually removing the placenta at delivery is indicated only for a retained or adherent placenta that does not separate spontaneously or with gentle traction within 30 minutes after delivery. Manually removing the placenta at delivery can cause trauma, infection, or incomplete removal of the placenta, which can increase the risk of late postpartum hemorrhage.
Choice C Reason: Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically. This is an incorrect answer that suggests an unnecessary and ineffective intervention that can prevent late postpartum hemorrhage. Administering broad- spectrum antibiotics prophylactically is a pharmacological intervention that involves giving antibiotics to prevent or treat infection. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically is indicated for women with risk factors or signs of infection during or after delivery, such as prolonged rupture of membranes, chorioamnionitis, fever, or foul- smelling lochia. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics prophylactically may reduce the risk of infection-related late postpartum hemorrhage, but it does not address other causes of late postpartum hemorrhage such as retained placental fragments or subinvolution of the uterus.
Choice D Reason: Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different intervention that can prevent early postpartum hemorrhage, not late postpartum hemorrhage. Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta is a technique that involves pulling on the umbilical cord while applying counter pressure on the uterus to facilitate placental expulsion. Applying traction on the umbilical cord to speed up separation of the placenta is indicated for active management of the third stage of labor, which can prevent early postpartum hemorrhage, which is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs within 24 hours after delivery. Early postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by uterine atony, retained placenta, lacerations, or coagulation disorders.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Apical pulse of 148 beats per minute. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal apical pulse for a newborn ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute. A high pulse rate may indicate fever, infection, anemia, or dehydration. A low pulse rate may indicate hypothermia, hypoxia, or heart block.
Choice B Reason: Respiratory rate of 40 during sleep. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn ranges from 40 to 60 breaths per minute. A high respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress, infection, or metabolic acidosis. A low respiratory rate may indicate respiratory depression, hypothermia, or narcotic exposure.
Choice C Reason: Skin color jaundiced. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a different condition called jaundice. Jaundice is a yellowish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin that is normally excreted by the liver and kidneys. Jaundice can occur in newborns due to immature liver function, increased red blood cell breakdown, or blood group incompatibility. Jaundice does not affect lung function or oxygenation.
Choice D Reason: Chest retractions. This is because chest retractions are a sign of respiratory distress that indicate increased work of breathing and reduced lung compliance. Chest retractions occur when the chest wall sinks in between the ribs or below the sternum during inhalation, creating a negative pressure that helps draw air into the lungs. RDS is a serious condition where the newborn's lungs are immature and lack sufficient surfactant, which is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. RDS can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and organ failure. It is more common in preterm infants, especially those born before 37 weeks' gestation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Pulmonary edema is a condition where fluid accumulates in the lungs, causing shortness of breath and difficulty breathing. It can occur in preeclampsia due to increased blood pressure and fluid retention, but it is not a definitive sign of eclampsia.
Choice B Reason: Convulsion (seizure) is a sudden, involuntary contraction of muscles that can cause loss of consciousness, shaking, and twitching. It is the main symptom of eclampsia and distinguishes it from preeclampsia.
Choice C Reason: Renal failure is a condition where the kidneys fail to filter waste products from the blood, resulting in high levels of creatinine and urea. It can occur in preeclampsia due to reduced blood flow to the kidneys, but it is not a specific indicator of eclampsia.
Choice D Reason: Retinal edema is a condition where fluid leaks into the retina, causing blurred vision and flashes of light. It can occur in preeclampsia due to increased blood pressure and damage to the blood vessels in the eye, but it is not a characteristic feature of eclampsia.

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