A woman with a history of crack cocaine use is admited to the Labor and Birthing Unit. While caring for the patient, the nurse notes a sudden onset of fetal bradycardia. The patient also complains of acute abdominal pain that is continuous and she has dark red vaginal bleeding. Which of the following would the nurse suspect?
Select one:
Shoulder dystocia.
Placental abruption.
Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy.
Placenta previa.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason: Shoulder dystocia. This is an incorrect answer that describes a different obstetric complication. Shoulder dystocia is a condition where the baby's shoulder gets stuck behind the mother's pubic bone during delivery, which can cause nerve injury, fracture, or asphyxia to the baby. Shoulder dystocia does not cause fetal bradycardia, abdominal pain, or vaginal bleeding.
Choice B Reason: Placental abruption. This is a correct answer that explains the symptoms of fetal bradycardia, abdominal pain, and vaginal bleeding in a woman with a history of crack cocaine use. Placental abruption. This is because placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall before delivery, which can cause fetal distress, maternal hemorrhage, and shock. Placental abruption can be triggered by maternal hypertension, trauma, or substance abuse, such as crack cocaine.
Choice C Reason: Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a rare and fatal condition also known as amniotic fluid embolism. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy is a condition where amniotic fluid enters into the maternal bloodstream and causes an allergic reaction, which can lead to respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, coagulopathy, and coma. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy does not cause fetal bradycardia or vaginal bleeding.
Choice D Reason: Placenta previa. This is an incorrect answer that indicates another placental disorder. Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta covers or is near the cervix, which can cause painless bright red bleeding during pregnancy or labor. Placenta previa does not cause fetal bradycardia or abdominal pain.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: "If I go too long overdue, the amniotic fluid volume can become too low for my baby to be safe." This is a correct answer that indicates that the client understands one of the Reasons for induction of labor at 42 weeks' pregnancy.
Choice B Reason: "My baby took longer to grow, and now she's ready to be born." This is an incorrect answer that shows a misconception about fetal growth and development. Fetal growth does not depend on gestational age alone, but also on genetic, maternal, placental, and environmental factors. A post-term fetus does not necessarily grow faster or larger than a term fetus. In fact, some post-term fetuses may experience intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), which means slower than expected growth for gestational age.
Choice C Reason: "I don't really need this induction, my baby will come whenever he wants to." This is an incorrect answer that reveals a lack of awareness or acceptance of the need for induction of labor at 42 weeks' pregnancy. Induction of labor is recommended for post-term pregnancies to prevent potential complications such as fetal distress, stillbirth, or maternal hemorrhage.
Choice D Reason: "Since I am so tired of being pregnant, I am being induced." This is an incorrect answer that implies that induction of labor is based on maternal preference or convenience rather than medical indication. Induction of labor should not be done without a valid Reason or informed consent, as it carries some risks such as failed induction, prolonged labor, infection, uterine rupture, or cesarean delivery.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Retained placental fragments. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is less common than uterine atony. Retained placental fragments are pieces of placenta that remain atached to the uterine wall after delivery, which prevent uterine contraction and involution, and provide a source of bleeding and infection. Retained placental fragments can be caused by abnormal placentation (such as placenta accreta), manual removal of placenta, or incomplete separation of placenta.
Choice B Reason: Cervical or vaginal lacerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is more likely to cause early postpartum hemorrhage than late postpartum hemorrhage. Cervical or vaginal lacerations are tears or cuts in the cervix or vagina that occur during delivery, which can cause bleeding from the damaged blood vessels. Cervical or vaginal lacerations can be caused by rapid or instrumental delivery, large or malpositioned fetus, or episiotomy.
Choice C Reason: Uterine inversion. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is rare and life-threatening. Uterine inversion is a condition where the uterus turns inside out and protrudes through the cervix and vagina after delivery, which can cause massive bleeding and shock. Uterine inversion can be caused by excessive traction on the umbilical cord, fundal pressure, or uterine relaxation.
Choice D Reason: Uterine atony. This is because uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, which leads to bleeding from the placental site. Uterine atony is the most common cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, accounting for about 75% of cases. Late postpartum hemorrhage is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs more than 24 hours but less than 12 weeks after delivery. Late postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by retained placental fragments, subinvolution of the uterus, infection, or coagulation disorders.
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