Before applying a cord clamp, the nurse assesses the umbilical cord for vessels. The nurse expects to find: Select one:

Two arteries, one vein.

Two veins, one artery.

Two veins, two arteries.

One artery, one vein.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A Reason: Two arteries, one vein. This is because two arteries and one vein are the normal components of the umbilical cord, which is a structure that connects the fetus to the placenta and provides blood circulation between them. The umbilical cord carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus through the umbilical vein, and deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta through the umbilical arteries.

Choice B Reason: Two veins, one artery. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is known as single umbilical artery (SUA). SUA is a condition where there is only one umbilical artery instead of two, which can reduce blood ﬂow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. SUA can be associated with congenital anomalies or growth restriction in some cases.

Choice C Reason: Two veins, two arteries. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is known as double umbilical vein (DUV). DUV is a condition where there are two umbilical veins instead of one, which can increase blood ﬂow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. DUV can be associated with fetal overgrowth or polycythemia in some cases.

Choice D Reason: One artery, one vein. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is also known as single umbilical artery (SUA). SUA is a condition where there is only one umbilical artery instead of two, which can reduce blood ﬂow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. SUA can be associated with congenital anomalies or growth restriction in some cases.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Apical pulse of 148 beats per minute. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal apical pulse for a newborn ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute. A high pulse rate may indicate fever, infection, anemia, or dehydration. A low pulse rate may indicate hypothermia, hypoxia, or heart block.

Choice B Reason: Respiratory rate of 40 during sleep. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn ranges from 40 to 60 breaths per minute. A high respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress, infection, or metabolic acidosis. A low respiratory rate may indicate respiratory depression, hypothermia, or narcotic exposure.

Choice C Reason: Skin color jaundiced. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a diﬀerent condition called jaundice. Jaundice is a yellowish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin that is normally excreted by the liver and kidneys. Jaundice can occur in newborns due to immature liver function, increased red blood cell breakdown, or blood group incompatibility. Jaundice does not aﬀect lung function or oxygenation.

Choice D Reason: Chest retractions. This is because chest retractions are a sign of respiratory distress that indicate increased work of breathing and reduced lung compliance. Chest retractions occur when the chest wall sinks in between the ribs or below the sternum during inhalation, creating a negative pressure that helps draw air into the lungs. RDS is a serious condition where the newborn's lungs are immature and lack sufficient surfactant, which is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. RDS can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and organ failure. It is more common in preterm infants, especially those born before 37 weeks' gestation.

A. Partial. B. Complete. C. Marginal. D. Low-lying.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Partial placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially covers the cervix. It usually does not resolve and may cause bleeding and complications during labor and delivery.

Choice B Reason: Complete placenta previa is a condition where the placenta completely covers the cervix. It is a serious condition that requires cesarean delivery and may cause life-threatening hemorrhage.

Choice C Reason: Marginal placenta previa is a condition where the edge of the placenta reaches the margin of the cervix. It may also cause bleeding and complications during labor and delivery.

Choice D Reason: Low-lying placenta previa is a condition where the placenta is near the cervix, but not covering it. It may resolve spontaneously as the uterus grows and the placenta moves upward.

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Before applying a cord clamp, the nurse assesses the umbilical cord for vessels. The nurse expects to find: Select one:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse explains to new parents that their newborn has developed respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). Which of the following assessments that the nurse makes would support a diagnosis of RDS? Select one:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

At 22 weeks' gestation, a client is diagnosed with placenta previa. The doctor tells the client that the placenta may move away from the cervix as the pregnancy progresses. This is classified as what type of previa?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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