Before applying a cord clamp, the nurse assesses the umbilical cord for vessels. The nurse expects to find: Select one:
Two arteries, one vein.
Two veins, one artery.
Two veins, two arteries.
One artery, one vein.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: Two arteries, one vein. This is because two arteries and one vein are the normal components of the umbilical cord, which is a structure that connects the fetus to the placenta and provides blood circulation between them. The umbilical cord carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus through the umbilical vein, and deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta through the umbilical arteries.
Choice B Reason: Two veins, one artery. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is known as single umbilical artery (SUA). SUA is a condition where there is only one umbilical artery instead of two, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. SUA can be associated with congenital anomalies or growth restriction in some cases.
Choice C Reason: Two veins, two arteries. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is known as double umbilical vein (DUV). DUV is a condition where there are two umbilical veins instead of one, which can increase blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. DUV can be associated with fetal overgrowth or polycythemia in some cases.
Choice D Reason: One artery, one vein. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is also known as single umbilical artery (SUA). SUA is a condition where there is only one umbilical artery instead of two, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. SUA can be associated with congenital anomalies or growth restriction in some cases.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: 3-2-1-0-2. This is an incorrect answer that underestimates the number of pregnancies and overestimates the number of preterm births. The client has had four pregnancies, not three. She has had one preterm birth, not two.
Choice B Reason: 4-1-1-1-3. This is an incorrect answer that overestimates the number of living children. The client has two living children, not three.
Choice C Reason 4-1-1-1-2. This is because the GTPAL method is a way of summarizing a woman's obstetric history using five numbers: G (gravida), T (term births), P (preterm births), A (abortions), and L (living children). Gravida is the number of pregnancies, regardless of outcome. Term births are deliveries after 37 weeks' gestation. Preterm births are deliveries between 20 and 37 weeks' gestation. Abortions are pregnancies that end before 20 weeks' gestation, either spontaneously or electively. Living children are the number of children who are alive at the time of assessment.
Choice D Reason: 4-1-2-0-3. This is an incorrect answer that overestimates the number of preterm births and living children, and underestimates the number of abortions. The client has had one preterm birth, not two. She has had one abortion, not zero. She has two living children, not three.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.
Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.
Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can affect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.
Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may affect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic fluid volume, umbilical cord blood flow, and fetal anomalies.
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