The nurse's initial action when caring for an otherwise stable, full term infant with a slightly decreased temperature is to:
Select one:
Place the infant skin to skin with the mother and re-check temperature in 30 minutes.
Check the infant's CBC and blood cultures, as this is a sign of probable sepsis.
Return the infant to the nursery for close observation under warming lights.
Notify the physician immediately and suggest orders for placement in an incubator.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: Place the infant skin to skin with the mother and re-check temperature in 30 minutes. This is because skin-to-skin contact is an effective and safe method of increasing the infant's temperature and promoting thermoregulation. Skin-to-skin contact also has other benefits such as enhancing bonding, breastfeeding, and maternal-infant attachment.
Choice B Reason: Check the infant's CBC and blood cultures, as this is a sign of probable sepsis. This is an unnecessary action that may cause undue stress and discomfort to the infant and the mother. A slightly decreased temperature in a full-term infant is not a sign of probable sepsis, but rather a common finding that may be due to environmental factors, such as exposure to cold air or wet linens.
Choice C Reason: Return the infant to the nursery for close observation under warming lights. This is an undesirable action that may interfere with the early initiation of breastfeeding and bonding between the mother and the infant. Warming lights are not recommended for routine use in healthy newborns, as they may cause dehydration, hyperthermia, or eye damage.
Choice D Reason: Notify the physician immediately and suggest orders for placement in an incubator. This is an excessive action that may indicate a lack of knowledge or confidence on the part of the nurse. An incubator is not indicated for a stable, full term infant with a slightly decreased temperature, as it may expose the infant to unnecessary interventions, infections, or separation from the mother.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Apical pulse of 148 beats per minute. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal apical pulse for a newborn ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute. A high pulse rate may indicate fever, infection, anemia, or dehydration. A low pulse rate may indicate hypothermia, hypoxia, or heart block.
Choice B Reason: Respiratory rate of 40 during sleep. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn ranges from 40 to 60 breaths per minute. A high respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress, infection, or metabolic acidosis. A low respiratory rate may indicate respiratory depression, hypothermia, or narcotic exposure.
Choice C Reason: Skin color jaundiced. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a different condition called jaundice. Jaundice is a yellowish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin that is normally excreted by the liver and kidneys. Jaundice can occur in newborns due to immature liver function, increased red blood cell breakdown, or blood group incompatibility. Jaundice does not affect lung function or oxygenation.
Choice D Reason: Chest retractions. This is because chest retractions are a sign of respiratory distress that indicate increased work of breathing and reduced lung compliance. Chest retractions occur when the chest wall sinks in between the ribs or below the sternum during inhalation, creating a negative pressure that helps draw air into the lungs. RDS is a serious condition where the newborn's lungs are immature and lack sufficient surfactant, which is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. RDS can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and organ failure. It is more common in preterm infants, especially those born before 37 weeks' gestation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Two arteries, one vein. This is because two arteries and one vein are the normal components of the umbilical cord, which is a structure that connects the fetus to the placenta and provides blood circulation between them. The umbilical cord carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus through the umbilical vein, and deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta through the umbilical arteries.
Choice B Reason: Two veins, one artery. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is known as single umbilical artery (SUA). SUA is a condition where there is only one umbilical artery instead of two, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. SUA can be associated with congenital anomalies or growth restriction in some cases.
Choice C Reason: Two veins, two arteries. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is known as double umbilical vein (DUV). DUV is a condition where there are two umbilical veins instead of one, which can increase blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. DUV can be associated with fetal overgrowth or polycythemia in some cases.
Choice D Reason: One artery, one vein. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is also known as single umbilical artery (SUA). SUA is a condition where there is only one umbilical artery instead of two, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. SUA can be associated with congenital anomalies or growth restriction in some cases.
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