The nurse's initial action when caring for an otherwise stable, full term infant with a slightly decreased temperature is to:
Select one:
Place the infant skin to skin with the mother and re-check temperature in 30 minutes.
Check the infant's CBC and blood cultures, as this is a sign of probable sepsis.
Return the infant to the nursery for close observation under warming lights.
Notify the physician immediately and suggest orders for placement in an incubator.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: Place the infant skin to skin with the mother and re-check temperature in 30 minutes. This is because skin-to-skin contact is an effective and safe method of increasing the infant's temperature and promoting thermoregulation. Skin-to-skin contact also has other benefits such as enhancing bonding, breastfeeding, and maternal-infant attachment.
Choice B Reason: Check the infant's CBC and blood cultures, as this is a sign of probable sepsis. This is an unnecessary action that may cause undue stress and discomfort to the infant and the mother. A slightly decreased temperature in a full-term infant is not a sign of probable sepsis, but rather a common finding that may be due to environmental factors, such as exposure to cold air or wet linens.
Choice C Reason: Return the infant to the nursery for close observation under warming lights. This is an undesirable action that may interfere with the early initiation of breastfeeding and bonding between the mother and the infant. Warming lights are not recommended for routine use in healthy newborns, as they may cause dehydration, hyperthermia, or eye damage.
Choice D Reason: Notify the physician immediately and suggest orders for placement in an incubator. This is an excessive action that may indicate a lack of knowledge or confidence on the part of the nurse. An incubator is not indicated for a stable, full term infant with a slightly decreased temperature, as it may expose the infant to unnecessary interventions, infections, or separation from the mother.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Manifestations of uteroplacental insufficiency. This is an incorrect answer that describes a different condition that affects the fetus, not the mother. Uteroplacental insufficiency is a condition where the placenta fails to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, which can result in fetal growth restriction, distress, or demise. Uteroplacental insufficiency does not cause shortness of breath, hypoxia, or cyanosis in the mother.
Choice B Reason: Manifestations of prolapsed cord. This is an incorrect answer that refers to another condition that affects the fetus, not the mother. Prolapsed cord is a condition where the umbilical cord slips through the cervix before the baby and becomes compressed by the fetal head, which can reduce oxygen flow to the fetus. Prolapsed cord does not cause shortness of breath, hypoxia, or cyanosis in the mother.
Choice C Reason: Manifestations of anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy. This is because anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy, also known as amniotic fluid embolism, is a rare and fatal condition where amniotic fluid enters into the maternal bloodstream and causes an allergic reaction, which can lead to respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, coagulopathy, and coma. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy can occur during or after labor and delivery, especially in cases of NSVD, multiparity, advanced maternal age, or placental abruption.
Choice D Reason: Manifestations of an acute asthmatic episode. This is an incorrect answer that assumes that the mother has a history of asthma or an allergic trigger. Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and dyspnea. Asthma can be exacerbated by pregnancy or labor, but it is not a common cause of sudden onset respiratory distress in the postpartum period.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Retained placental fragments. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is less common than uterine atony. Retained placental fragments are pieces of placenta that remain atached to the uterine wall after delivery, which prevent uterine contraction and involution, and provide a source of bleeding and infection. Retained placental fragments can be caused by abnormal placentation (such as placenta accreta), manual removal of placenta, or incomplete separation of placenta.
Choice B Reason: Cervical or vaginal lacerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is more likely to cause early postpartum hemorrhage than late postpartum hemorrhage. Cervical or vaginal lacerations are tears or cuts in the cervix or vagina that occur during delivery, which can cause bleeding from the damaged blood vessels. Cervical or vaginal lacerations can be caused by rapid or instrumental delivery, large or malpositioned fetus, or episiotomy.
Choice C Reason: Uterine inversion. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is rare and life-threatening. Uterine inversion is a condition where the uterus turns inside out and protrudes through the cervix and vagina after delivery, which can cause massive bleeding and shock. Uterine inversion can be caused by excessive traction on the umbilical cord, fundal pressure, or uterine relaxation.
Choice D Reason: Uterine atony. This is because uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, which leads to bleeding from the placental site. Uterine atony is the most common cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, accounting for about 75% of cases. Late postpartum hemorrhage is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs more than 24 hours but less than 12 weeks after delivery. Late postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by retained placental fragments, subinvolution of the uterus, infection, or coagulation disorders.
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