A woman is at 32 weeks' gestation. Her fundal height measurement at this clinic appointment is 26 centimeters. After reviewing her ultrasound results, the health care provider asks the nurse to schedule the client for a series of ultrasounds to be done every 2 weeks. The nurse should ensure that the client understands that the main purpose for this is to:
Select one:
Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole.
Assess for congenital anomalies.
Determine fetal presentation.
Monitor fetal growth.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.
Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.
Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can affect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.
Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may affect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic fluid volume, umbilical cord blood flow, and fetal anomalies.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Late decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates uteroplacental insufficiency, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Late decelerations are characterized by gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of uterine contractions and return to baseline after the end of contractions. Amnioinfusion is not effective for late decelerations, as it does not address the underlying cause of uteroplacental insufficiency, which may be due to maternal hypertension, diabetes, preeclampsia, or placental abruption.
Choice B Reason: Moderate decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a non-existent type of fetal heart rate patern, as there is no such term as moderate decelerations. The term moderate refers to the category of fetal heart rate variability, which is a measure of the fluctuations in fetal heart rate around the baseline. Moderate variability indicates normal fetal oxygenation and well-being, while absent or minimal variability indicates fetal hypoxia or distress.
Choice C Reason: Variable decelerations. This is because variable decelerations are a type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates cord compression, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Variable decelerations are characterized by abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in onset, depth, and duration, and do not have a consistent relationship with uterine contractions. Amnioinfusion is a procedure that involves infusing saline or lactated Ringer's solution into the amniotic cavity through a transcervical catheter, which can relieve cord compression by increasing the volume of amniotic fluid and cushioning the cord. Amnioinfusion can improve fetal oxygenation and reduce variable decelerations.
Choice D Reason: Early decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates head compression, which can stimulate the vagus nerve and slow down the fetal heart rate. Early decelerations are characterized by gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that begin with the onset of uterine contractions and return to baseline with the end of contractions. Early decelerations are benign and do not require intervention, as they reflect normal fetal head descent and progress of labor. Amnioinfusion is not indicated for early decelerations, as it does not affect head compression or vagal stimulation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Vitamin K will increase erythropoiesis. This is an incorrect statement that confuses vitamin K with erythropoietin. Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Vitamin K does not affect erythropoiesis.
Choice B Reason: Vitamin K will enhance bilirubin breakdown. This is an incorrect statement that confuses vitamin K with phototherapy. Phototherapy is a treatment that exposes the newborn's skin to light, which converts bilirubin into water-soluble forms that can be excreted by the liver and kidneys. Bilirubin is a yellow pigment that results from the breakdown of red blood cells. High levels of bilirubin can cause jaundice and brain damage in newborns. Vitamin K does not affect bilirubin metabolism.
Choice C Reason: Vitamin K will stop Rh sensitization. This is an incorrect statement that confuses vitamin K with Rh immune globulin. Rh immune globulin is an injection given to Rh-negative mothers who deliver Rh-positive babies, to prevent them from developing antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells in future pregnancies. Rh sensitization is a condition where the mother's immune system atacks the baby's blood cells, causing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Vitamin K does not affect Rh sensitization.
Choice D Reason: Vitamin K will promote blood clotting ability. This is a correct statement that explains the rationale for administering vitamin K as prophylaxis to newborns. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. Newborns have low levels of vitamin K at birth due to poor placental transfer and lack of intestinal bacteria that produce vitamin K. Therefore, they are at risk of bleeding disorders such as hemorrhagic disease of the newborn.
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