A woman is at 32 weeks' gestation. Her fundal height measurement at this clinic appointment is 26 centimeters. After reviewing her ultrasound results, the health care provider asks the nurse to schedule the client for a series of ultrasounds to be done every 2 weeks. The nurse should ensure that the client understands that the main purpose for this is to:
Select one:

Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole.

Assess for congenital anomalies.

Determine fetal presentation.

Monitor fetal growth.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.

Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.

Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can aﬀect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.

Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may aﬀect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic ﬂuid volume, umbilical cord blood ﬂow, and fetal anomalies.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Possible Meconium Aspiration Syndrome (MAS). This is an unlikely condition for this newborn, as MAS occurs when fetal stool (meconium) enters into the lungs before or during birth, causing airway obstruction, inﬂammation, and infection. MAS usually aﬀects term or post-term infants who experience fetal distress or hypoxia in utero.

Choice B Reason: Possible polycythemia. This is an unrelated condition for this newborn, as polycythemia refers to an abnormally high number of red blood cells in the blood, which can increase blood viscosity and impair circulation.

Polycythemia may occur in infants who have delayed cord clamping, intrauterine growth restriction, maternal diabetes, or high altitude exposure.

Choice C Reason: Possible Transient Tachypnea of the Newborn (TTN). This is a less serious condition than RDS, as TTN is a mild respiratory problem that results from delayed clearance of fetal lung ﬂuid after birth. TTN causes rapid breathing, nasal ﬂaring, grunting, and mild cyanosis. It usually resolves within 24 to 48 hours after birth.

Choice D Reason: Possible Respiratory Distress Syndrome (RDS). This is a serious condition that requires immediate intervention and treatment, as RDS can lead to life-threatening complications such as pulmonary hemorrhage, pneumothorax, or bronchopulmonary dysplasia. RDS causes respiratory distress, nasal ﬂaring, retractions, grunting, and central cyanosis. It usually occurs within minutes to hours after birth.

A. Retained placental fragments. B. Cervical or vaginal lacerations. C. Uterine inversion. D. Uterine atony.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Retained placental fragments. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is less common than uterine atony. Retained placental fragments are pieces of placenta that remain atached to the uterine wall after delivery, which prevent uterine contraction and involution, and provide a source of bleeding and infection. Retained placental fragments can be caused by abnormal placentation (such as placenta accreta), manual removal of placenta, or incomplete separation of placenta.

Choice B Reason: Cervical or vaginal lacerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is more likely to cause early postpartum hemorrhage than late postpartum hemorrhage. Cervical or vaginal lacerations are tears or cuts in the cervix or vagina that occur during delivery, which can cause bleeding from the damaged blood vessels. Cervical or vaginal lacerations can be caused by rapid or instrumental delivery, large or malpositioned fetus, or episiotomy.

Choice C Reason: Uterine inversion. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is rare and life-threatening. Uterine inversion is a condition where the uterus turns inside out and protrudes through the cervix and vagina after delivery, which can cause massive bleeding and shock. Uterine inversion can be caused by excessive traction on the umbilical cord, fundal pressure, or uterine relaxation.

Choice D Reason: Uterine atony. This is because uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, which leads to bleeding from the placental site. Uterine atony is the most common cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, accounting for about 75% of cases. Late postpartum hemorrhage is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs more than 24 hours but less than 12 weeks after delivery. Late postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by retained placental fragments, subinvolution of the uterus, infection, or coagulation disorders.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse assesses a newborn at 36 weeks' gestation, and the following behaviors are noted: nasal ﬂaring, labored breathing, and excessive mucus. The nurse is most concerned about: Select one:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

When reviewing the causes of late postpartum hemorrhage, which of the following would the nurse identify as the most common cause? Select one:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

At 22 weeks' gestation, a client is diagnosed with placenta previa. The doctor tells the client that the placenta may move away from the cervix as the pregnancy progresses. This is classified as what type of previa?

The nurse is reading the results of non-stress test (NST) strips completed that day. Which of the following strips meets the criteria for a reactive NST? Select one:

During a physical assessment of a newborn, the nurse observes bluish markings across the newborn's lower back. The nurse interprets this finding as: Select one:

The nurse assesses a 1-day-old newborn. Which finding indicates that the newborn's oxygenation needs are not being met? Select one:

A couple who has had difficulty conceiving confides in the nurse at the infertility clinic that they feel overwhelmed with the decisions that face them. Which of the following nursing strategies would be most appropriate and therapeutic? Select one: