In caring for the premature infant, the nurse must continually assess hydration status. Parameters to assess would include all of the following except:
Select one:

Daily weight.

Consistency of stool.

Volume of urine output.

Blood pH.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A Reason: Daily weight. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a valid parameter to assess hydration status. Daily weight is a measure of the body mass that can reﬂect changes in ﬂuid balance. Daily weight can help detect ﬂuid loss or gain in premature infants, who are more prone to dehydration or overhydration due to immature renal function and high insensible water loss.

Choice B Reason: Consistency of stool. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a valid parameter to assess hydration status. Consistency of stool is a measure of the texture and form of feces that can reﬂect changes in ﬂuid intake and absorption. Consistency of stool can help identify diarrhea or constipation in premature infants, who are more susceptible to gastrointestinal problems such as necrotizing enterocolitis or feeding intolerance.

Choice C Reason: Volume of urine output. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a valid parameter to assess hydration status. Volume of urine output is a measure of the amount of urine produced and excreted by the kidneys that can reﬂect changes in ﬂuid balance and renal function. Volume of urine output can help monitor hydration status and kidney function in premature infants, who are more vulnerable to ﬂuid overload or deficit and renal impairment.

Choice D Reason: Blood pH. This is because blood pH is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of the blood, which reﬂects the balance between carbon dioxide and bicarbonate in the body. Blood pH is not a direct indicator of hydration status, which refers to the amount of water and electrolytes in the body. Hydration status can aﬀect blood pH, but blood pH can also be inﬂuenced by other factors such as respiratory or metabolic disorders.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A Reason: The cheek of the newborn is touched, and the newborn turns toward the side that was touched. This is an incorrect answer that describes a diﬀerent reﬂex called the rooting reﬂex. The rooting reﬂex is a feeding reﬂex that helps the newborn locate the nipple and initiate sucking. The rooting reﬂex is elicited by stroking the cheek or corner of the mouth of the newborn, which causes them to turn their head and open their mouth toward the stimulus.

Choice B Reason: The newborn is suddenly lowered or startled, and they extend their arms, legs and neck, then rapidly bring their arms together. This is because this response describes the Moro reﬂex, which is a primitive reﬂex that is present at birth and disappears by 3 to 6 months of age. The Moro reﬂex is elicited by simulating a falling sensation or a loud noise, which triggers a fear response in the newborn. The Moro reﬂex consists of four phases: extension, abduction, adduction, and crying.

Choice C Reason: The newborn is supine and their head is turned to one side, then the arm on that same side extends. This is an incorrect answer that refers to another reﬂex called the tonic neck reﬂex. The tonic neck reﬂex is a postural reﬂex that helps prepare the newborn for voluntary reaching. The tonic neck reﬂex is elicited by placing the newborn in a supine position and turning their head to one side, which causes them to assume a "fencing" posture with one arm extended and one arm ﬂexed.

Choice D Reason: The lateral aspect of the sole of the newborn's foot is stroked, and the toes extend and fan outward. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a diﬀerent reﬂex called the Babinski reﬂex. The Babinski reﬂex is a neurological reﬂex that tests for spinal cord integrity. The Babinski reﬂex is elicited by stroking the lateral aspect of the sole of the foot from heel to toe, which causes the big toe to dorsiﬂex and the other toes to fan out.

A. Partial. B. Complete. C. Marginal. D. Low-lying.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Partial placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially covers the cervix. It usually does not resolve and may cause bleeding and complications during labor and delivery.

Choice B Reason: Complete placenta previa is a condition where the placenta completely covers the cervix. It is a serious condition that requires cesarean delivery and may cause life-threatening hemorrhage.

Choice C Reason: Marginal placenta previa is a condition where the edge of the placenta reaches the margin of the cervix. It may also cause bleeding and complications during labor and delivery.

Choice D Reason: Low-lying placenta previa is a condition where the placenta is near the cervix, but not covering it. It may resolve spontaneously as the uterus grows and the placenta moves upward.

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In caring for the premature infant, the nurse must continually assess hydration status. Parameters to assess would include all of the following except: Select one:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is performing a newborn physical assessment and is about to elicit the Moro reﬂex. Which of the following responses should the nurse expect to see? Select one:

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

At 22 weeks' gestation, a client is diagnosed with placenta previa. The doctor tells the client that the placenta may move away from the cervix as the pregnancy progresses. This is classified as what type of previa?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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In caring for the premature infant, the nurse must continually assess hydration status. Parameters to assess would include all of the following except:
Select one: