Narcotic analgesia is administered to a laboring client at 10:00 a.m. The infant is delivered at 10:35 A.M. The nurse would anticipate that the narcotic analgesia could:
Select one:
Enhance uterine contractions.
Be used in place of preoperative sedation.
Result in neonatal respiratory depression.
Prevent the need for anesthesia with an episiotomy.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: Enhance uterine contractions. This is an incorrect answer that contradicts the effect of narcotic analgesia on uterine activity. Narcotic analgesia can reduce uterine contractions by decreasing maternal catecholamine levels, which can prolong labor or increase bleeding.
Choice B Reason: Be used in place of preoperative sedation. This is an irrelevant answer that does not apply to this scenario. Preoperative sedation is a medication given before surgery to reduce anxiety, pain, or nausea. Narcotic analgesia can be used as a preoperative sedative, but it is not related to labor or delivery.
Choice C Reason: Result in neonatal respiratory depression. This is because narcotic analgesia can cross the placenta and affect the fetal central nervous system, which can cause decreased respiratory drive, apnea, bradycardia, or hypotonia in the newborn. The risk of neonatal respiratory depression is higher when narcotic analgesia is administered close to delivery, as there is less time for placental clearance or maternal metabolism.
Choice D Reason: Prevent the need for anesthesia with an episiotomy. This is an inaccurate answer that overestimates the effect of narcotic analgesia on perineal pain. Narcotic analgesia can provide some relief of labor pain, but it does not block pain sensation completely or locally. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum to enlarge the vaginal opening during delivery, which requires local anesthesia or regional anesthesia (such as epidural or spinal). Narcotic analgesia does not prevent or replace anesthesia with an episiotomy.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Manifestations of uteroplacental insufficiency. This is an incorrect answer that describes a different condition that affects the fetus, not the mother. Uteroplacental insufficiency is a condition where the placenta fails to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, which can result in fetal growth restriction, distress, or demise. Uteroplacental insufficiency does not cause shortness of breath, hypoxia, or cyanosis in the mother.
Choice B Reason: Manifestations of prolapsed cord. This is an incorrect answer that refers to another condition that affects the fetus, not the mother. Prolapsed cord is a condition where the umbilical cord slips through the cervix before the baby and becomes compressed by the fetal head, which can reduce oxygen flow to the fetus. Prolapsed cord does not cause shortness of breath, hypoxia, or cyanosis in the mother.
Choice C Reason: Manifestations of anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy. This is because anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy, also known as amniotic fluid embolism, is a rare and fatal condition where amniotic fluid enters into the maternal bloodstream and causes an allergic reaction, which can lead to respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, coagulopathy, and coma. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy can occur during or after labor and delivery, especially in cases of NSVD, multiparity, advanced maternal age, or placental abruption.
Choice D Reason: Manifestations of an acute asthmatic episode. This is an incorrect answer that assumes that the mother has a history of asthma or an allergic trigger. Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and dyspnea. Asthma can be exacerbated by pregnancy or labor, but it is not a common cause of sudden onset respiratory distress in the postpartum period.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Apical pulse of 148 beats per minute. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal apical pulse for a newborn ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute. A high pulse rate may indicate fever, infection, anemia, or dehydration. A low pulse rate may indicate hypothermia, hypoxia, or heart block.
Choice B Reason: Respiratory rate of 40 during sleep. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn ranges from 40 to 60 breaths per minute. A high respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress, infection, or metabolic acidosis. A low respiratory rate may indicate respiratory depression, hypothermia, or narcotic exposure.
Choice C Reason: Skin color jaundiced. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a different condition called jaundice. Jaundice is a yellowish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin that is normally excreted by the liver and kidneys. Jaundice can occur in newborns due to immature liver function, increased red blood cell breakdown, or blood group incompatibility. Jaundice does not affect lung function or oxygenation.
Choice D Reason: Chest retractions. This is because chest retractions are a sign of respiratory distress that indicate increased work of breathing and reduced lung compliance. Chest retractions occur when the chest wall sinks in between the ribs or below the sternum during inhalation, creating a negative pressure that helps draw air into the lungs. RDS is a serious condition where the newborn's lungs are immature and lack sufficient surfactant, which is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. RDS can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and organ failure. It is more common in preterm infants, especially those born before 37 weeks' gestation.
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