Narcotic analgesia is administered to a laboring client at 10:00 a.m. The infant is delivered at 10:35 A.M. The nurse would anticipate that the narcotic analgesia could:
Select one:

Enhance uterine contractions.

Be used in place of preoperative sedation.

Result in neonatal respiratory depression.

Prevent the need for anesthesia with an episiotomy.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A Reason: Enhance uterine contractions. This is an incorrect answer that contradicts the eﬀect of narcotic analgesia on uterine activity. Narcotic analgesia can reduce uterine contractions by decreasing maternal catecholamine levels, which can prolong labor or increase bleeding.

Choice B Reason: Be used in place of preoperative sedation. This is an irrelevant answer that does not apply to this scenario. Preoperative sedation is a medication given before surgery to reduce anxiety, pain, or nausea. Narcotic analgesia can be used as a preoperative sedative, but it is not related to labor or delivery.

Choice C Reason: Result in neonatal respiratory depression. This is because narcotic analgesia can cross the placenta and aﬀect the fetal central nervous system, which can cause decreased respiratory drive, apnea, bradycardia, or hypotonia in the newborn. The risk of neonatal respiratory depression is higher when narcotic analgesia is administered close to delivery, as there is less time for placental clearance or maternal metabolism.

Choice D Reason: Prevent the need for anesthesia with an episiotomy. This is an inaccurate answer that overestimates the eﬀect of narcotic analgesia on perineal pain. Narcotic analgesia can provide some relief of labor pain, but it does not block pain sensation completely or locally. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum to enlarge the vaginal opening during delivery, which requires local anesthesia or regional anesthesia (such as epidural or spinal). Narcotic analgesia does not prevent or replace anesthesia with an episiotomy.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.

Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.

Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can aﬀect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.

Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may aﬀect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic ﬂuid volume, umbilical cord blood ﬂow, and fetal anomalies.

A. Retained placental fragments. B. Cervical or vaginal lacerations. C. Uterine inversion. D. Uterine atony.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A Reason: Retained placental fragments. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is less common than uterine atony. Retained placental fragments are pieces of placenta that remain atached to the uterine wall after delivery, which prevent uterine contraction and involution, and provide a source of bleeding and infection. Retained placental fragments can be caused by abnormal placentation (such as placenta accreta), manual removal of placenta, or incomplete separation of placenta.

Choice B Reason: Cervical or vaginal lacerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is more likely to cause early postpartum hemorrhage than late postpartum hemorrhage. Cervical or vaginal lacerations are tears or cuts in the cervix or vagina that occur during delivery, which can cause bleeding from the damaged blood vessels. Cervical or vaginal lacerations can be caused by rapid or instrumental delivery, large or malpositioned fetus, or episiotomy.

Choice C Reason: Uterine inversion. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a diﬀerent cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, which is rare and life-threatening. Uterine inversion is a condition where the uterus turns inside out and protrudes through the cervix and vagina after delivery, which can cause massive bleeding and shock. Uterine inversion can be caused by excessive traction on the umbilical cord, fundal pressure, or uterine relaxation.

Choice D Reason: Uterine atony. This is because uterine atony is a condition where the uterus fails to contract and retract after delivery, which leads to bleeding from the placental site. Uterine atony is the most common cause of late postpartum hemorrhage, accounting for about 75% of cases. Late postpartum hemorrhage is excessive bleeding from the uterus or genital tract that occurs more than 24 hours but less than 12 weeks after delivery. Late postpartum hemorrhage can be caused by retained placental fragments, subinvolution of the uterus, infection, or coagulation disorders.

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Narcotic analgesia is administered to a laboring client at 10:00 a.m. The infant is delivered at 10:35 A.M. The nurse would anticipate that the narcotic analgesia could: Select one:

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

When reviewing the causes of late postpartum hemorrhage, which of the following would the nurse identify as the most common cause? Select one:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Narcotic analgesia is administered to a laboring client at 10:00 a.m. The infant is delivered at 10:35 A.M. The nurse would anticipate that the narcotic analgesia could:
Select one: