Following a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery (NSVD), a 28 year old G3 now P3 mother develops sudden onset shortness of breath, hypoxia and cyanosis. The delivery room nurse quickly recognizes these symptoms as possible:
Select one:
Manifestations of uteroplacental insufficiency.
Manifestations of prolapsed cord.
Manifestations of anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy.
Manifestations of an acute asthmatic episode.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason: Manifestations of uteroplacental insufficiency. This is an incorrect answer that describes a different condition that affects the fetus, not the mother. Uteroplacental insufficiency is a condition where the placenta fails to deliver adequate oxygen and nutrients to the fetus, which can result in fetal growth restriction, distress, or demise. Uteroplacental insufficiency does not cause shortness of breath, hypoxia, or cyanosis in the mother.
Choice B Reason: Manifestations of prolapsed cord. This is an incorrect answer that refers to another condition that affects the fetus, not the mother. Prolapsed cord is a condition where the umbilical cord slips through the cervix before the baby and becomes compressed by the fetal head, which can reduce oxygen flow to the fetus. Prolapsed cord does not cause shortness of breath, hypoxia, or cyanosis in the mother.
Choice C Reason: Manifestations of anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy. This is because anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy, also known as amniotic fluid embolism, is a rare and fatal condition where amniotic fluid enters into the maternal bloodstream and causes an allergic reaction, which can lead to respiratory failure, cardiac arrest, coagulopathy, and coma. Anaphylactoid syndrome of pregnancy can occur during or after labor and delivery, especially in cases of NSVD, multiparity, advanced maternal age, or placental abruption.
Choice D Reason: Manifestations of an acute asthmatic episode. This is an incorrect answer that assumes that the mother has a history of asthma or an allergic trigger. Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, and dyspnea. Asthma can be exacerbated by pregnancy or labor, but it is not a common cause of sudden onset respiratory distress in the postpartum period.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Rule out a suspected hydatidiform mole. This is an incorrect answer that describes an unlikely condition for this client. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease where abnormal placental tissue develops instead of a normal fetus. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum (severe nausea and vomiting), preeclampsia, and hyperthyroidism. A hydatidiform mole usually causes a fundal height measurement that is larger than expected for gestational age, not smaller.
Choice B Reason: Assess for congenital anomalies. This is an incorrect answer that implies that the client has not had a previous ultrasound to screen for fetal anomalies. Congenital anomalies are structural or functional defects that are present at birth, such as cleft lip, spina bifida, or Down syndrome. Ultrasound can detect some congenital anomalies by visualizing the fetal anatomy and morphology. However, ultrasound screening for fetal anomalies is usually done between 18 and 22 weeks of gestation, not at 32 weeks.
Choice C Reason: Determine fetal presentation. This is an incorrect answer that suggests that the client has an uncertain fetal presentation. Fetal presentation is the part of the fetus that is closest to the cervix, such as vertex (head), breech (butocks or feet), or transverse (shoulder). Fetal presentation can affect the mode and outcome of delivery. Ultrasound can determine fetal presentation by locating the fetal head and spine. However, fetal presentation can also be assessed by abdominal palpation or vaginal examination, which are simpler and less invasive methods.
Choice D Reason: Monitor fetal growth. This is because fundal height measurement is a method of estimating fetal size and gestational age by measuring the distance from the pubic symphysis to the top of the uterus (fundus) in centimeters. A fundal height measurement that is significantly smaller or larger than expected for gestational age may indicate intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) or macrosomia, respectively. IUGR means that the fetal growth is slower than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of fetal distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and stillbirth. Macrosomia means that the fetal weight is higher than expected for gestational age, which can increase the risk of birth injuries, shoulder dystocia, cesarean delivery, and hypoglycemia. Ultrasound is a more accurate way of assessing fetal size and growth by measuring various parameters such as biparietal diameter (BPD), head circumference (HC), abdominal circumference (AC), and femur length (FL). Ultrasound can also detect other factors that may affect fetal growth such as placental function, amniotic fluid volume, umbilical cord blood flow, and fetal anomalies.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Late decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates uteroplacental insufficiency, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Late decelerations are characterized by gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of uterine contractions and return to baseline after the end of contractions. Amnioinfusion is not effective for late decelerations, as it does not address the underlying cause of uteroplacental insufficiency, which may be due to maternal hypertension, diabetes, preeclampsia, or placental abruption.
Choice B Reason: Moderate decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a non-existent type of fetal heart rate patern, as there is no such term as moderate decelerations. The term moderate refers to the category of fetal heart rate variability, which is a measure of the fluctuations in fetal heart rate around the baseline. Moderate variability indicates normal fetal oxygenation and well-being, while absent or minimal variability indicates fetal hypoxia or distress.
Choice C Reason: Variable decelerations. This is because variable decelerations are a type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates cord compression, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Variable decelerations are characterized by abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in onset, depth, and duration, and do not have a consistent relationship with uterine contractions. Amnioinfusion is a procedure that involves infusing saline or lactated Ringer's solution into the amniotic cavity through a transcervical catheter, which can relieve cord compression by increasing the volume of amniotic fluid and cushioning the cord. Amnioinfusion can improve fetal oxygenation and reduce variable decelerations.
Choice D Reason: Early decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates head compression, which can stimulate the vagus nerve and slow down the fetal heart rate. Early decelerations are characterized by gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that begin with the onset of uterine contractions and return to baseline with the end of contractions. Early decelerations are benign and do not require intervention, as they reflect normal fetal head descent and progress of labor. Amnioinfusion is not indicated for early decelerations, as it does not affect head compression or vagal stimulation.

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