A postpartum client has a fourth-degree perineal laceration. The nurse would expect which of the following medications to be ordered?
Select one:
Docusate sodium (Colace).
Bromocriptine (Parlodel).
Ferrous sulfate (Feosol).
Methylergonovine (Methergine).
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: Docusate sodium (Colace). This is because docusate sodium is a stool softener that can prevent constipation and straining during defecation, which can aggravate or impair the healing of a perineal laceration. A fourth-degree perineal laceration is a severe tear that extends through the skin, muscles, perineal body, and anal sphincter into the rectal mucosa. It can occur during vaginal delivery due to factors such as fetal macrosomia, forceps use, or episiotomy.
Choice B Reason: Bromocriptine (Parlodel). This is an inappropriate medication for a postpartum client with a fourth- degree perineal laceration, as it has no effect on wound healing or pain relief. Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist that can suppress lactation by inhibiting prolactin secretion. It is used for women who do not wish to breastfeed or who have medical contraindications to breastfeeding.
Choice C Reason: Ferrous sulfate (Feosol). This is an unnecessary medication for a postpartum client with a fourth- degree perineal laceration, unless she has iron deficiency anemia. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement that can treat or prevent anemia by increasing hemoglobin production and oxygen-carrying capacity. Anemia can occur in the postpartum period due to blood loss during delivery or poor nutritional intake during pregnancy.
Choice D Reason: Methylergonovine (Methergine). This is an irrelevant medication for a postpartum client with a fourth-degree perineal laceration, as it does not affect wound healing or pain relief. Methylergonovine is an ergot alkaloid that can stimulate uterine contractions and reduce postpartum bleeding. It is used for women who have uterine atony or hemorrhage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Two arteries, one vein. This is because two arteries and one vein are the normal components of the umbilical cord, which is a structure that connects the fetus to the placenta and provides blood circulation between them. The umbilical cord carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus through the umbilical vein, and deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta through the umbilical arteries.
Choice B Reason: Two veins, one artery. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is known as single umbilical artery (SUA). SUA is a condition where there is only one umbilical artery instead of two, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. SUA can be associated with congenital anomalies or growth restriction in some cases.
Choice C Reason: Two veins, two arteries. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is known as double umbilical vein (DUV). DUV is a condition where there are two umbilical veins instead of one, which can increase blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. DUV can be associated with fetal overgrowth or polycythemia in some cases.
Choice D Reason: One artery, one vein. This is an incorrect answer that indicates an abnormal anatomy of the umbilical cord, which is also known as single umbilical artery (SUA). SUA is a condition where there is only one umbilical artery instead of two, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. SUA can be associated with congenital anomalies or growth restriction in some cases.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Homans' sign. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different sign that is not related to pregnancy. Homans' sign is a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) that occurs when there is pain or discomfort in the calf or popliteal region when the foot is dorsiflexed. Homans' sign can be elicited by passive or active movement of the foot, but it is not a reliable or specific indicator of DVT.
Choice B Reason: Chadwick's sign. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different sign of pregnancy that affects the color of the cervix, not the texture. Chadwick's sign is a sign of pregnancy that refers to the bluish or purplish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and vulva due to increased blood flow and congestion. Chadwick's sign can be observed by visual inspection of the cervix during the first prenatal visit, usually around 6 to 8 weeks of gestation.
Choice C Reason: Goodell's sign. This is because Goodell's sign is a sign of pregnancy that refers to the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity and edema. Goodell's sign can be detected by digital examination of the cervix during the first prenatal visit, usually around 6 to 8 weeks of gestation.
Choice D Reason: McDonald's sign. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different sign of pregnancy that involves the angle of the uterus, not the cervix. McDonald's sign is a sign of pregnancy that refers to the ease of flexing the body of the uterus against the cervix, which creates an angle of 90 degrees or less. McDonald's sign can be assessed by bimanual examination of the uterus during the first prenatal visit, usually around 7 to 8 weeks of gestation.
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