A postpartum client has a fourth-degree perineal laceration. The nurse would expect which of the following medications to be ordered?
Select one:
Docusate sodium (Colace).
Bromocriptine (Parlodel).
Ferrous sulfate (Feosol).
Methylergonovine (Methergine).
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: Docusate sodium (Colace). This is because docusate sodium is a stool softener that can prevent constipation and straining during defecation, which can aggravate or impair the healing of a perineal laceration. A fourth-degree perineal laceration is a severe tear that extends through the skin, muscles, perineal body, and anal sphincter into the rectal mucosa. It can occur during vaginal delivery due to factors such as fetal macrosomia, forceps use, or episiotomy.
Choice B Reason: Bromocriptine (Parlodel). This is an inappropriate medication for a postpartum client with a fourth- degree perineal laceration, as it has no effect on wound healing or pain relief. Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist that can suppress lactation by inhibiting prolactin secretion. It is used for women who do not wish to breastfeed or who have medical contraindications to breastfeeding.
Choice C Reason: Ferrous sulfate (Feosol). This is an unnecessary medication for a postpartum client with a fourth- degree perineal laceration, unless she has iron deficiency anemia. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement that can treat or prevent anemia by increasing hemoglobin production and oxygen-carrying capacity. Anemia can occur in the postpartum period due to blood loss during delivery or poor nutritional intake during pregnancy.
Choice D Reason: Methylergonovine (Methergine). This is an irrelevant medication for a postpartum client with a fourth-degree perineal laceration, as it does not affect wound healing or pain relief. Methylergonovine is an ergot alkaloid that can stimulate uterine contractions and reduce postpartum bleeding. It is used for women who have uterine atony or hemorrhage.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: "If I go too long overdue, the amniotic fluid volume can become too low for my baby to be safe." This is a correct answer that indicates that the client understands one of the Reasons for induction of labor at 42 weeks' pregnancy.
Choice B Reason: "My baby took longer to grow, and now she's ready to be born." This is an incorrect answer that shows a misconception about fetal growth and development. Fetal growth does not depend on gestational age alone, but also on genetic, maternal, placental, and environmental factors. A post-term fetus does not necessarily grow faster or larger than a term fetus. In fact, some post-term fetuses may experience intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), which means slower than expected growth for gestational age.
Choice C Reason: "I don't really need this induction, my baby will come whenever he wants to." This is an incorrect answer that reveals a lack of awareness or acceptance of the need for induction of labor at 42 weeks' pregnancy. Induction of labor is recommended for post-term pregnancies to prevent potential complications such as fetal distress, stillbirth, or maternal hemorrhage.
Choice D Reason: "Since I am so tired of being pregnant, I am being induced." This is an incorrect answer that implies that induction of labor is based on maternal preference or convenience rather than medical indication. Induction of labor should not be done without a valid Reason or informed consent, as it carries some risks such as failed induction, prolonged labor, infection, uterine rupture, or cesarean delivery.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 140 with one acceleration to 155 for 15 seconds within 30 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. A non-reactive NST may suggest fetal hypoxia, distress, or sleep, but it does not necessarily indicate a problem. A non-reactive NST may require further testing or stimulation to elicit a reactive result.
Choice B Reason A fetal heart rate baseline of 140 with two accelerations to 160 for 15 seconds within 20 minutes. This is because this strip meets the criteria for a reactive NST, which is a non-invasive test that evaluates fetal well- being and oxygenation by measuring the fetal heart rate response to fetal movements. A reactive NST is defined as having at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate that are at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline and last for at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period.
Choice C Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 130 with two accelerations to 135 for 15 seconds within 20 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. The accelerations in this strip are not sufficient in amplitude, as they are only 5 beats per minute above the baseline, instead of at least 15 beats per minute.
Choice D Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 150 with two accelerations to 160 for 10 seconds within 20 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. The accelerations in this strip are not sufficient in duration, as they last only for 10 seconds, instead of at least 15 seconds.
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