After the birth of a newborn, the nursing intervention that most effectively promotes parental atachment is: Select one:
Taking the newborn to the nursery for the initial assessment.
Allowing the mother a chance to rest without the baby immediately after delivery.
Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer to do the initial assessment.
Placing the newborn on the maternal abdomen and doing the initial assessment.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Taking the newborn to the nursery for the initial assessment. This is an ineffective intervention that disrupts parental atachment by separating the mother and the newborn. It also deprives the newborn of the benefits of skin to skin contact and breastfeeding.
Choice B Reason: Allowing the mother a chance to rest without the baby immediately after delivery. This is an unnecessary intervention that delays parental atachment by postponing the first contact between the mother and the newborn. It also ignores the mother's desire and readiness to hold and feed her baby.
Choice C Reason: Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer to do the initial assessment. This is an outdated intervention that hinders parental atachment by creating a physical barrier between the mother and the newborn. It also exposes the newborn to potential risks such as dehydration, hyperthermia, or eye damage.
Choice D Reason: Placing the newborn on the maternal abdomen and doing the initial assessment. This is because this intervention facilitates skin to skin contact, eye contact, and bonding between the mother and the newborn. It also enhances breastfeeding initiation, thermoregulation, and maternal-infant atachment.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Preterm infant. This is an incorrect answer that confuses TTN with another respiratory condition called respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). RDS is a serious condition where the newborn's lungs are immature and lack sufficient surfactant, which is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. RDS can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and organ failure. It is more common in preterm infants, especially those born before 37 weeks' gestation.
Choice B Reason: Female infant. This is an incorrect answer that has no evidence or rationale to support it. TTN does not have a gender preference or difference in incidence or severity.
Choice C Reason: GBS status of mother. This is an incorrect answer that relates to another respiratory complication called early-onset neonatal sepsis (EONS). EONS is a bacterial infection that occurs within 72 hours after birth, which can affect multiple organs and systems in the newborn. EONS can be caused by group B streptococcus (GBS), which is a common bacterium that colonizes in some women's vagina or rectum. GBS can be transmited to the newborn during delivery and cause pneumonia, meningitis, or septic shock.
Choice D Reason: Cesarean section. This is because cesarean section is a risk factor for TTN, which is a mild respiratory problem that results from delayed clearance of fetal lung fluid after birth. TTN causes rapid breathing, nasal flaring, grunting, and mild cyanosis. It usually resolves within 24 to 48 hours after birth. Cesarean section can increase the risk of TTN because it bypasses the normal process of labor, which helps squeeze out some of the fluid from the fetal lungs.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Late decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates uteroplacental insufficiency, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Late decelerations are characterized by gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that begin after the peak of uterine contractions and return to baseline after the end of contractions. Amnioinfusion is not effective for late decelerations, as it does not address the underlying cause of uteroplacental insufficiency, which may be due to maternal hypertension, diabetes, preeclampsia, or placental abruption.
Choice B Reason: Moderate decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a non-existent type of fetal heart rate patern, as there is no such term as moderate decelerations. The term moderate refers to the category of fetal heart rate variability, which is a measure of the fluctuations in fetal heart rate around the baseline. Moderate variability indicates normal fetal oxygenation and well-being, while absent or minimal variability indicates fetal hypoxia or distress.
Choice C Reason: Variable decelerations. This is because variable decelerations are a type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates cord compression, which can reduce blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus. Variable decelerations are characterized by abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in onset, depth, and duration, and do not have a consistent relationship with uterine contractions. Amnioinfusion is a procedure that involves infusing saline or lactated Ringer's solution into the amniotic cavity through a transcervical catheter, which can relieve cord compression by increasing the volume of amniotic fluid and cushioning the cord. Amnioinfusion can improve fetal oxygenation and reduce variable decelerations.
Choice D Reason: Early decelerations. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different type of fetal heart rate patern that indicates head compression, which can stimulate the vagus nerve and slow down the fetal heart rate. Early decelerations are characterized by gradual decreases in fetal heart rate that begin with the onset of uterine contractions and return to baseline with the end of contractions. Early decelerations are benign and do not require intervention, as they reflect normal fetal head descent and progress of labor. Amnioinfusion is not indicated for early decelerations, as it does not affect head compression or vagal stimulation.
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