A client has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select one:
Maintain the client on strict bedrest.
Carefully monitor intake and output.
Restrict visitation of the client's partner.
Closely supervise all infant care and interaction.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Maintain the client on strict bedrest. This is an inappropriate action that may worsen the client's condition and increase her isolation and depression. Postpartum psychosis requires prompt psychiatric treatment with medication and psychotherapy, not bedrest.
Choice B Reason: Carefully monitor intake and output. This is an irrelevant action that has no direct relation to postpartum psychosis or its management. Monitoring intake and output may be indicated for other postpartum complications such as hemorrhage, infection, or preeclampsia.
Choice C Reason: Restrict visitation of the client's partner. This is an unnecessary action that may deprive the client of social support and emotional comfort. The partner may be an important source of help and information for the client and the health care team. The partner should be involved in the client's care and education, unless there are signs of abuse or violence.
Choice D Reason: Closely supervise all infant care and interaction. This is because postpartum psychosis is a severe mental disorder that occurs in some women after childbirth, which can cause delusions, hallucinations, paranoia, mood swings, confusion, and suicidal or homicidal thoughts. Postpartum psychosis can pose a danger to both the mother and the infant, as the mother may harm herself or the infant due to distorted perceptions or impulses. The nurse should closely supervise all infant care and interaction to ensure safety and prevent injury.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 140 with one acceleration to 155 for 15 seconds within 30 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. A non-reactive NST may suggest fetal hypoxia, distress, or sleep, but it does not necessarily indicate a problem. A non-reactive NST may require further testing or stimulation to elicit a reactive result.
Choice B Reason A fetal heart rate baseline of 140 with two accelerations to 160 for 15 seconds within 20 minutes. This is because this strip meets the criteria for a reactive NST, which is a non-invasive test that evaluates fetal well- being and oxygenation by measuring the fetal heart rate response to fetal movements. A reactive NST is defined as having at least two accelerations of the fetal heart rate that are at least 15 beats per minute above the baseline and last for at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period.
Choice C Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 130 with two accelerations to 135 for 15 seconds within 20 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. The accelerations in this strip are not sufficient in amplitude, as they are only 5 beats per minute above the baseline, instead of at least 15 beats per minute.
Choice D Reason: A fetal heart rate baseline of 150 with two accelerations to 160 for 10 seconds within 20 minutes. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a non-reactive NST, which is a test that does not meet the criteria for a reactive NST. The accelerations in this strip are not sufficient in duration, as they last only for 10 seconds, instead of at least 15 seconds.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Enhance uterine contractions. This is an incorrect answer that contradicts the effect of narcotic analgesia on uterine activity. Narcotic analgesia can reduce uterine contractions by decreasing maternal catecholamine levels, which can prolong labor or increase bleeding.
Choice B Reason: Be used in place of preoperative sedation. This is an irrelevant answer that does not apply to this scenario. Preoperative sedation is a medication given before surgery to reduce anxiety, pain, or nausea. Narcotic analgesia can be used as a preoperative sedative, but it is not related to labor or delivery.
Choice C Reason: Result in neonatal respiratory depression. This is because narcotic analgesia can cross the placenta and affect the fetal central nervous system, which can cause decreased respiratory drive, apnea, bradycardia, or hypotonia in the newborn. The risk of neonatal respiratory depression is higher when narcotic analgesia is administered close to delivery, as there is less time for placental clearance or maternal metabolism.
Choice D Reason: Prevent the need for anesthesia with an episiotomy. This is an inaccurate answer that overestimates the effect of narcotic analgesia on perineal pain. Narcotic analgesia can provide some relief of labor pain, but it does not block pain sensation completely or locally. An episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum to enlarge the vaginal opening during delivery, which requires local anesthesia or regional anesthesia (such as epidural or spinal). Narcotic analgesia does not prevent or replace anesthesia with an episiotomy.
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