A client has been diagnosed with postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select one:
Maintain the client on strict bedrest.
Carefully monitor intake and output.
Restrict visitation of the client's partner.
Closely supervise all infant care and interaction.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: Maintain the client on strict bedrest. This is an inappropriate action that may worsen the client's condition and increase her isolation and depression. Postpartum psychosis requires prompt psychiatric treatment with medication and psychotherapy, not bedrest.
Choice B Reason: Carefully monitor intake and output. This is an irrelevant action that has no direct relation to postpartum psychosis or its management. Monitoring intake and output may be indicated for other postpartum complications such as hemorrhage, infection, or preeclampsia.
Choice C Reason: Restrict visitation of the client's partner. This is an unnecessary action that may deprive the client of social support and emotional comfort. The partner may be an important source of help and information for the client and the health care team. The partner should be involved in the client's care and education, unless there are signs of abuse or violence.
Choice D Reason: Closely supervise all infant care and interaction. This is because postpartum psychosis is a severe mental disorder that occurs in some women after childbirth, which can cause delusions, hallucinations, paranoia, mood swings, confusion, and suicidal or homicidal thoughts. Postpartum psychosis can pose a danger to both the mother and the infant, as the mother may harm herself or the infant due to distorted perceptions or impulses. The nurse should closely supervise all infant care and interaction to ensure safety and prevent injury.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Latent phase of the first stage of labor. This is because this phase is characterized by mild and irregular contractions, slow cervical dilation (up to 4 cm), minimal cervical effacement (up to 40%), and minimal discomfort or pain. The latent phase is also known as the early phase or preparatory phase of labor.
Choice B Reason: Transition phase of the first stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that describes a different phase with different characteristics. The transition phase is marked by strong and frequent contractions, rapid cervical dilation (from 8 to 10 cm), complete cervical effacement (100%), and intense discomfort or pain. The transition phase is also known as the terminal phase or acceleration phase of labor.
Choice C Reason: Perineal phase of the second stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that refers to another stage and phase with different features. The second stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation (10 cm) and ends with delivery of the baby. The perineal phase is the last part of the second stage, where the baby's head crowns and emerges through the vaginal opening.
Choice D Reason: Active phase of the first stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that indicates another phase with different atributes. The active phase is characterized by moderate and regular contractions, progressive cervical dilation (from 4 to 8 cm), increased cervical effacement (from 40% to 80%), and increased discomfort or pain. The active phase is also known as the middle phase or dilatation phase of labor.

Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Apical pulse of 148 beats per minute. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal apical pulse for a newborn ranges from 120 to 160 beats per minute. A high pulse rate may indicate fever, infection, anemia, or dehydration. A low pulse rate may indicate hypothermia, hypoxia, or heart block.
Choice B Reason: Respiratory rate of 40 during sleep. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a normal finding for a newborn. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn ranges from 40 to 60 breaths per minute. A high respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress, infection, or metabolic acidosis. A low respiratory rate may indicate respiratory depression, hypothermia, or narcotic exposure.
Choice C Reason: Skin color jaundiced. This is not a finding that would support a diagnosis of RDS, but rather a different condition called jaundice. Jaundice is a yellowish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes caused by elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin that is normally excreted by the liver and kidneys. Jaundice can occur in newborns due to immature liver function, increased red blood cell breakdown, or blood group incompatibility. Jaundice does not affect lung function or oxygenation.
Choice D Reason: Chest retractions. This is because chest retractions are a sign of respiratory distress that indicate increased work of breathing and reduced lung compliance. Chest retractions occur when the chest wall sinks in between the ribs or below the sternum during inhalation, creating a negative pressure that helps draw air into the lungs. RDS is a serious condition where the newborn's lungs are immature and lack sufficient surfactant, which is a substance that reduces surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse. RDS can cause respiratory distress, hypoxia, acidosis, and organ failure. It is more common in preterm infants, especially those born before 37 weeks' gestation.
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