The triage nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who reports pain and swelling in the right lower leg. The client's pain became much worse last night and appeared along with fever, chills, and sweating. The client states, "I hit my leg on the car door 4 or 5 days ago, and the sore is getting bigger" The client has a history of diabetes mellitus type 2. Which condition should the nurse anticipate for this client?
Venous thromboembolism (VTE)
Cellulitis
Arterial insufficiency
Thrombocytopenia
The Correct Answer is B
A. Venous thromboembolism (VTE) - While VTE can cause leg pain and swelling, the presence of fever, chills, and localized trauma history in this scenario points more toward cellulitis.
B. Cellulitis
The client's symptoms, including pain, swelling, fever, chills, and sweating, are indicative of cellulitis, which is a bacterial skin infection. The history of trauma to the leg (hitting the leg on the car door) could have introduced bacteria into the skin, leading to the infection. The client's diabetes mellitus type 2 also increases the risk of developing skin infections due to impaired immune function and circulation. Cellulitis often presents with localized pain, swelling, warmth, redness, and systemic symptoms like fever and chills. Immediate medical evaluation and appropriate antibiotic treatment are necessary for cellulitis.
C. Arterial insufficiency - Arterial insufficiency typically presents with symptoms like intermittent claudication, rest pain, and non-healing wounds due to poor circulation. The symptoms described in the scenario are more consistent with an acute infection (cellulitis) rather than chronic arterial insufficiency.
D. Thrombocytopenia - Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count and does not directly cause localized pain, swelling, and redness in the leg as described in the scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. There is no need for the client to lie flat for an extended period after a DEXA scan. The procedure is non-invasive and does not require immobilization.
B. Emptying the bladder before the test is essential to ensure a clear and accurate scan of the pelvis and lower spine. A full bladder might obstruct the view and affect the accuracy of the results.
C. DEXA scans do not typically require the use of IV dye. It is a simple X-ray procedure that measures bone density, and no contrast material is usually needed.
D. Fasting is not necessary for a DEXA scan. The procedure does not involve ingesting or injecting any substances that require fasting.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Lordosis: Lordosis is an inward curvature of the spine, commonly seen in the lower back (lumbar spine) or neck (cervical spine). It creates a swayback appearance. Lordosis is not typically associated with osteoporosis.
B. Scoliosis: Scoliosis is a sideways curvature of the spine, creating an "S" or "C" shape. While scoliosis can occur in people of all ages, it is not directly caused by osteoporosis.
C. Ankylosis: Ankylosis refers to the stiffening or fusion of joints, often due to inflammation and progressive loss of function. It is not a spinal deformity associated with osteoporosis.
D. Kyphosis: Kyphosis is a forward rounding of the back, leading to a hunched or humpbacked posture. It commonly affects the upper back (thoracic spine) and is associated with osteoporosis, especially in older adults. When the bones in the spine weaken due to osteoporosis, they can compress and collapse, leading to the development of kyphosis. This condition is sometimes referred to as a dowager's hump when it occurs in older women.
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