A nurse is to administer one 1L bag of normal saline to a client over 5 hours. At what rate should the nurse program the pump in milliliters per hour?
(Round to the whole number. Assume no interruptions.)
The Correct Answer is ["200"]
To calculate the rate at which the nurse should program the pump in milliliters per hour, you can use the following formula:
Rate (mL/hour) = Volume (mL) / Time (hours)
In this case, the volume is 1,000 mL (1 liter), and the time is 5 hours. Plugging these values into the formula:
Rate (mL/hour) = 1,000 mL / 5 hours = 200 mL/hour
So, the nurse should program the pump to administer the normal saline at a rate of 200 milliliters per hour.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Urinary tract infection
The symptoms described, including recent mental status changes and periods of incontinence, are suggestive of a urinary tract infection (UTI) in an elderly individual. UTIs are common among older adults and can cause a variety of symptoms, including confusion, which is often the primary manifestation in the elderly population. Other symptoms can include urinary urgency, frequency, and incontinence.
B. Acute kidney failure - While acute kidney failure can cause changes in urination and mental status, it is less likely to be the primary cause of these symptoms in this scenario. UTI is a more common and immediate concern given the symptoms described.
C. Septic shock - Septic shock is a severe condition that occurs when an infection leads to a life-threatening drop in blood pressure. While septic shock can cause altered mental status, it is a critical condition that often presents with more dramatic symptoms and requires immediate intensive care management. The symptoms described are more suggestive of a UTI.
D. Urinary stasis - Urinary stasis refers to the slowing or cessation of urine flow. While urinary stasis can contribute to the development of UTIs, it is not a condition that would cause sudden and acute mental status changes and incontinence on its own. UTI is a more likely cause of the symptoms described.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Right hip dislocation: In a hip dislocation, the head of the femur is forced out of the acetabulum, which is the socket in the pelvis. This can cause a noticeably shorter leg, hip deformity, and acute pain. Imaging might not show a fracture in the case of a dislocation.
B. Right hip contusion: A hip contusion is a bruise on the hip, usually caused by a direct blow or trauma. While it can cause pain and swelling, it typically does not result in a noticeably shorter leg or hip deformity.
C. Right hip strain: Hip strain refers to damage to the muscles or tendons around the hip joint due to overuse or sudden twisting movements. While it can cause pain, it does not typically lead to a noticeable leg shortening or hip deformity.
D. Right hip osteoarthritis: Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that can affect the hip joint. It leads to joint pain and stiffness but does not usually cause a noticeable leg shortening or acute deformity unless there are severe complications, which are not mentioned in the scenario.
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