The patient, age 35, is admitted with aplastic anemia. He asks the nurse what aplastic anemia is. An accurate response would be that

the activity of the bone marrow is depressed.

red cells are absent as a result of chronic blood loss.

the bone marrow fails to produce lymphocytes.

the kidneys fail to produce red blood cells.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   The activity of the bone marrow is depressed. Aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient numbers of blood cells, including red cells, white cells, and platelets.
B.   Red cells are absent as a result of chronic blood loss. This describes a condition like iron- deficiency anemia, not aplastic anemia.
C.   The bone marrow fails to produce lymphocytes. Aplastic anemia affects the production of all blood cells, not just lymphocytes.
D.   The kidneys fail to produce red blood cells. This describes anemia of chronic kidney disease, not aplastic anemia. In aplastic anemia, the problem lies with the bone marrow, not the kidneys.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Presence of Bence-Jones protein in the urine is indicative of multiple myeloma, but hypercalcemia is a more urgent issue to address.
B. Severe back pain is common in multiple myeloma due to bone involvement, but it is not as immediately life-threatening as hypercalcemia.
C. Elevated serum calcium levels (hypercalcemia) are a common complication of multiple myeloma and can lead to various complications, including kidney damage, altered mental status, and cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, it is crucial to report significantly elevated serum calcium levels promptly to the health care provider for appropriate management.
D. Patient reports no stool for 5 days may indicate constipation, which is important to address but is not as urgent as hypercalcemia in the context of multiple myeloma.

A. Abnormal vaginal bleeding B. Recurrent urinary tract infections C. Hot flashes D. Blood in the stool

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Abnormal vaginal bleeding. Abnormal vaginal bleeding, especially postmenopausal bleeding, is the most common symptom reported by clients being evaluated for endometrial cancer.
B. Recurrent urinary tract infections. This is not a common symptom of endometrial cancer.
C. Hot flashes. Hot flashes are typically associated with menopause and hormone changes, not endometrial cancer.
D. Blood in the stool. Blood in the stool is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal issues or colorectal cancer, not endometrial cancer.

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The patient, age 35, is admitted with aplastic anemia. He asks the nurse what aplastic anemia is. An accurate response would be that

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which information obtained by the nurse assessing a patient admitted with multiple myeloma is most important to report to the health care provider?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who is being evaluated for endometrial cancer. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect the client to report?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman reports a history of dyspareunia, backache, pelvis pressure, urinary tract infections, and a frequent urinary urgency. Which condition does the nurse suspect?

In helping prepare a nursing care plan for a 90-pound, 82-year-old woman with iron-deficiency anemia with a hemoglobin of 8.2, the nurse agrees that the most appropriate nursing diagnosis would be:

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