A patient with alcoholic liver disease has severe anemia. Which of the following explains the development of anemia in this particular patient?
Alcohol suppresses erythropoiesis.
Alcoholics are often deficient in folate.
Liver dysfunction leads to decreased clotting factors.
Gastric ulcers may lead to chronic blood loss.
Alcohol causes inflammation, which leads to anemia.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Alcohol can directly suppress the production of red blood cells (erythropoiesis) in the bone marrow, leading to anemia.
B. While alcoholics may indeed be deficient in folate due to poor nutrition, folate deficiency is not the primary mechanism for anemia in alcoholic liver disease.
C. Liver dysfunction can lead to decreased production of clotting factors, contributing to coagulopathy, but it is not the primary mechanism for anemia in alcoholic liver disease.
D. Gastric ulcers may indeed lead to chronic blood loss, contributing to anemia, but it is not specific to alcoholic liver disease.
E. While alcohol-induced inflammation may contribute to various complications, including liver damage, it is not the primary mechanism for anemia in alcoholic liver disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. "Dietary supplements have not been tested and approved by the government." While this statement may be true, it is not directly related to the potential interaction between dietary supplements and nitroglycerin.
B. "Dietary supplements may be expensive and are not typically covered by insurance." While cost considerations are important, they are not directly related to the potential interaction
between dietary supplements and nitroglycerin.
C. "There is not enough evidence that dietary supplements are effective for erectile dysfunction."
While this statement may be true, it is not directly related to the potential interaction between dietary supplements and nitroglycerin.
D. "Dietary supplements can cause a drug-drug interaction with nitrates." Nitroglycerin is a medication commonly used for angina, and it interacts with erectile dysfunction medications
such as sildenafil (Viagra) due to its vasodilatory effects, potentially causing severe hypotension.
Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the risk of interactions between dietary supplements and nitroglycerin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Cyclosporine. While cyclosporine is used to treat aplastic anemia, particularly in cases of immune-mediated aplastic anemia, it is not considered a potential cure.
B. Stem cell transplantation. Stem cell transplantation is both a standard treatment and a potential cure for aplastic anemia, especially for younger patients with a suitable donor.
C. Plasmapheresis. Plasmapheresis is not a standard treatment for aplastic anemia.
D. Transfusions. Blood transfusions are a supportive treatment for aplastic anemia but not a cure.
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