A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is postmenopausal and has risk factors for osteoporosis. The nurse anticipates the client will be prescribed which of the following medications?

Raloxifene hydrochloride

Levothyroxine

Escitalopram oxalate

Calcitonin

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A.   Raloxifene hydrochloride is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that is used for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to prevent bone loss and reduce the risk of fractures by acting similarly to estrogen in some tissues and antagonizing estrogen in others.
B.   Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication used to treat hypothyroidism, not osteoporosis.
C.   Escitalopram oxalate is an antidepressant medication used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not osteoporosis.
D.   Calcitonin is a hormone involved in calcium regulation, and calcitonin nasal spray is sometimes used in the treatment of osteoporosis, but it is not typically the first-line treatment option.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Alcohol can directly suppress the production of red blood cells (erythropoiesis) in the bone marrow, leading to anemia.
B. While alcoholics may indeed be deficient in folate due to poor nutrition, folate deficiency is not the primary mechanism for anemia in alcoholic liver disease.
C. Liver dysfunction can lead to decreased production of clotting factors, contributing to coagulopathy, but it is not the primary mechanism for anemia in alcoholic liver disease.
D. Gastric ulcers may indeed lead to chronic blood loss, contributing to anemia, but it is not specific to alcoholic liver disease.
E. While alcohol-induced inflammation may contribute to various complications, including liver damage, it is not the primary mechanism for anemia in alcoholic liver disease.

A. "Treatment for vaginal yeast infections must be prescribed by the provider." B. "Vaginal yeast infections present as a thick, white discharge." C. "The use of oral contraceptives will decrease the risk for vaginal yeast infections." D. "There is usually no itching with vaginal yeast infections as the fungus does not invade the vaginal wall."

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "Treatment for vaginal yeast infections must be prescribed by the provider." This statement is correct because antifungal medications, which are required to treat vaginal yeast infections, are prescription-based.
B. "Vaginal yeast infections present as a thick, white discharge." While this is a common symptom of vaginal yeast infections, it alone is not sufficient for diagnosis.
C. "The use of oral contraceptives will decrease the risk for vaginal yeast infections." This statement is incorrect because oral contraceptives may sometimes increase the risk of vaginal yeast infections.

D. "There is usually no itching with vaginal yeast infections as the fungus does not invade the vaginal wall." This statement is incorrect because itching is a common symptom of vaginal yeast infections due to irritation caused by the overgrowth of yeast in the vaginal area.

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A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is postmenopausal and has risk factors for osteoporosis. The nurse anticipates the client will be prescribed which of the following medications?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient with alcoholic liver disease has severe anemia. Which of the following explains the development of anemia in this particular patient?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about vaginal yeast infections. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A nurse in a clinic is caring for a client who is postmenopausal and has risk factors for osteoporosis. The nurse anticipates the client will be prescribed which of the following medications?

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