TJ, a 30-year-old client is admitted in sickle cell crisis with symptoms of dyspnea and leg pain. TJ's significant other asks, "I don't really understand why he is hurting so badly." Which of the following responses by the nurse is best?
"Clumping of abnormal red blood cells blocks the flow of blood through the capillaries."
"Bleeding in the joints occurs because red blood cells are being rapidly destroyed by the bone marrow."
"The pain is due to a disturbance in cellular metabolism."
"The bone marrow is expanding with the sickled cells and that causes pain."
The Correct Answer is A
A. This response accurately describes the pathophysiology of sickle cell crisis. During a crisis, sickled red blood cells clump together, leading to microvascular occlusion and impaired blood flow to tissues, resulting in pain.
B. Bleeding in the joints is not a characteristic feature of sickle cell crisis. It may occur in other conditions such as hemophilia or osteoarthritis but not in sickle cell crisis.
C. Disturbance in cellular metabolism is not the primary mechanism underlying the pain experienced during sickle cell crisis.
D. Bone marrow expansion with sickled cells may contribute to bone pain in sickle cell disease, but it is not the primary cause of pain during a sickle cell crisis.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Herpes simplex virus can cause genital herpes, but it typically does not lead to pelvic inflammatory disease. Pelvic inflammatory disease is more commonly associated with untreated chlamydia or gonorrhea infections.
B. Syphilis during pregnancy can lead to various complications such as stillbirth, neonatal death, or congenital syphilis in the newborn, but low birth weight is not a typical complication.
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is a known risk factor for the development of cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV can lead to precancerous changes in cervical cells,
which, if left untreated, may progress to cervical cancer.
D. Meningitis is not a typical complication of chlamydia in males. In males, untreated chlamydia can lead to complications such as epididymitis or infertility.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Syphilis can indeed affect many areas of the body, including the brain and heart, but this statement does not specifically address primary syphilis, which is characterized by the appearance of a painless sore (chancre) at the site of infection.
B. Syphilis does not typically resolve on its own. Without treatment, the infection can progress to more severe stages with potentially serious complications.
C. Syphilis is caused by a bacterial infection (Treponema pallidum) and is treated with antibiotics such as penicillin. Antiviral medications are not effective against bacterial infections like syphilis.
D. This statement is accurate and important for the prevention of syphilis transmission. Syphilis can be transmitted through vaginal, anal, or oral sex, but the risk of transmission is lower during oral sex compared to vaginal or anal intercourse.
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