TJ, a 30-year-old client is admitted in sickle cell crisis with symptoms of dyspnea and leg pain. TJ's significant other asks, "I don't really understand why he is hurting so badly." Which of the following responses by the nurse is best?
"Clumping of abnormal red blood cells blocks the flow of blood through the capillaries."
"Bleeding in the joints occurs because red blood cells are being rapidly destroyed by the bone marrow."
"The pain is due to a disturbance in cellular metabolism."
"The bone marrow is expanding with the sickled cells and that causes pain."
The Correct Answer is A
A. This response accurately describes the pathophysiology of sickle cell crisis. During a crisis, sickled red blood cells clump together, leading to microvascular occlusion and impaired blood flow to tissues, resulting in pain.
B. Bleeding in the joints is not a characteristic feature of sickle cell crisis. It may occur in other conditions such as hemophilia or osteoarthritis but not in sickle cell crisis.
C. Disturbance in cellular metabolism is not the primary mechanism underlying the pain experienced during sickle cell crisis.
D. Bone marrow expansion with sickled cells may contribute to bone pain in sickle cell disease, but it is not the primary cause of pain during a sickle cell crisis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Herpes simplex virus can cause genital herpes, but it typically does not lead to pelvic inflammatory disease. Pelvic inflammatory disease is more commonly associated with untreated chlamydia or gonorrhea infections.
B. Syphilis during pregnancy can lead to various complications such as stillbirth, neonatal death, or congenital syphilis in the newborn, but low birth weight is not a typical complication.
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is a known risk factor for the development of cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV can lead to precancerous changes in cervical cells,
which, if left untreated, may progress to cervical cancer.
D. Meningitis is not a typical complication of chlamydia in males. In males, untreated chlamydia can lead to complications such as epididymitis or infertility.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","E","F"]
Explanation
A. Family history of prostate cancer is a known risk factor, as the disease can be more common in those with a relative who has had prostate cancer.
B. Race is a significant factor; African American men and Caribbean men of African ancestry have a higher incidence of prostate cancer.
C. Obesity has been linked to an increased risk of developing more aggressive forms of prostate cancer.
D. Smoking, while a risk factor for many cancers, is not as strongly linked to prostate cancer as the other factors listed here.
E. Advanced age is a major risk factor since the probability of developing prostate cancer increases significantly after the age of 50.
F. Consuming a large amount of red meat has been associated with an increased risk of prostate cancer.
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