TJ, a 30-year-old client is admitted in sickle cell crisis with symptoms of dyspnea and leg pain. TJ's significant other asks, "I don't really understand why he is hurting so badly." Which of the following responses by the nurse is best?
"Clumping of abnormal red blood cells blocks the flow of blood through the capillaries."
"Bleeding in the joints occurs because red blood cells are being rapidly destroyed by the bone marrow."
"The pain is due to a disturbance in cellular metabolism."
"The bone marrow is expanding with the sickled cells and that causes pain."
The Correct Answer is A
A. This response accurately describes the pathophysiology of sickle cell crisis. During a crisis, sickled red blood cells clump together, leading to microvascular occlusion and impaired blood flow to tissues, resulting in pain.
B. Bleeding in the joints is not a characteristic feature of sickle cell crisis. It may occur in other conditions such as hemophilia or osteoarthritis but not in sickle cell crisis.
C. Disturbance in cellular metabolism is not the primary mechanism underlying the pain experienced during sickle cell crisis.
D. Bone marrow expansion with sickled cells may contribute to bone pain in sickle cell disease, but it is not the primary cause of pain during a sickle cell crisis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Elevated blood pressure above 140/90. While hypertension can occur in middle age, it is not specifically associated with perimenopause.
B. Report of dryness with vaginal intercourse. Vaginal dryness is a common symptom of perimenopause due to decreasing estrogen levels.
C. Report of urinary retention. Urinary symptoms in perimenopause more commonly include frequency and urgency, rather than retention.
D. Elevated body temperature above 37.8° C (100° F). While hot flashes are common during perimenopause, they do not typically cause a sustained elevated body temperature.
Correct Answer is C
No explanation
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