TJ, a 30-year-old client is admitted in sickle cell crisis with symptoms of dyspnea and leg pain. TJ's significant other asks, "I don't really understand why he is hurting so badly." Which of the following responses by the nurse is best?
"Clumping of abnormal red blood cells blocks the flow of blood through the capillaries."
"Bleeding in the joints occurs because red blood cells are being rapidly destroyed by the bone marrow."
"The pain is due to a disturbance in cellular metabolism."
"The bone marrow is expanding with the sickled cells and that causes pain."
The Correct Answer is A
A. This response accurately describes the pathophysiology of sickle cell crisis. During a crisis, sickled red blood cells clump together, leading to microvascular occlusion and impaired blood flow to tissues, resulting in pain.
B. Bleeding in the joints is not a characteristic feature of sickle cell crisis. It may occur in other conditions such as hemophilia or osteoarthritis but not in sickle cell crisis.
C. Disturbance in cellular metabolism is not the primary mechanism underlying the pain experienced during sickle cell crisis.
D. Bone marrow expansion with sickled cells may contribute to bone pain in sickle cell disease, but it is not the primary cause of pain during a sickle cell crisis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. The use of latex condoms. Latex condoms are highly effective in reducing the transmission of many STIs when used consistently and correctly.
B. Avoiding sexual contact if a partner is known to have an STI. While avoiding contact with an infected partner is important, many people may not know if their partner is infected, and this does not provide protection against unknown infections.
C. Vaccination against vaccine-preventable STIs. While vaccination is important (e.g., for HPV and hepatitis B), it does not protect against all STIs.
D. Limiting sexual partners. Limiting sexual partners can reduce risk but does not eliminate the risk of STIs if other protective measures are not used.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Prolonged bleeding or easy bruising is a characteristic feature of hemophilia, a genetic
disorder characterized by deficient or defective blood clotting proteins, leading to impaired blood clotting and prolonged bleeding after injury or trauma.
B. Excessive blood clotting is not a characteristic feature of hemophilia; rather, it is the opposite.
Hemophilia is characterized by a deficiency in clotting factors, which results in impaired clot formation.
C. Hemophilia does not typically result in increased platelet count. Platelets are involved in the initial stages of blood clotting, but hemophilia primarily affects clotting factor proteins.
D. Delayed wound healing is not a characteristic feature of hemophilia. Hemophilia primarily affects blood clotting, leading to prolonged bleeding, but it does not directly affect wound
healing processes.
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