What is the primary pathophysiological process that occurs in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Decreased production of clotting factors
Impaired platelet function
Excessive activation of clotting factors and widespread clot formation
Excessive platelet production
The Correct Answer is C
A. DIC is not characterized by decreased production of clotting factors. Instead, it involves consumption of clotting factors due to widespread activation of coagulation.
B. While platelet dysfunction may occur in DIC due to consumption and depletion of platelets, the primary pathophysiological process in DIC is the activation of clotting factors and formation of blood clots throughout the vasculature.
C. Excessive activation of clotting factors and widespread clot formation is the primary pathophysiological process in DIC. This leads to the formation of numerous small blood clots throughout the body's blood vessels, resulting in organ dysfunction and potentially life-threatening complications.
D. Excessive platelet production is not a characteristic feature of DIC. Instead, platelets are consumed and depleted as they are incorporated into the blood clots formed during the
coagulation cascade in DIC.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "With your recurrent history, one of these times the cyst will be malignant.": This response is not appropriate as it may cause unnecessary fear and is not supportive or informative.
B. "I appreciate your concern regarding another surgical procedure. Would you like to discuss your concerns?": This response validates the client's feelings and opens a dialogue for further discussion, allowing the client to express her concerns and receive appropriate information and support.
C. "The surgical procedure is minimal, and you will not have to be concerned after you learn the results.": This response dismisses the client's concerns and does not provide an opportunity for discussion.
D. "A prolonged ovarian abnormality should be evaluated thoroughly.": While this statement is true, it does not address the client's immediate concerns and does not encourage an open
discussion.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Herpes simplex virus can cause genital herpes, but it typically does not lead to pelvic inflammatory disease. Pelvic inflammatory disease is more commonly associated with untreated chlamydia or gonorrhea infections.
B. Syphilis during pregnancy can lead to various complications such as stillbirth, neonatal death, or congenital syphilis in the newborn, but low birth weight is not a typical complication.
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is a known risk factor for the development of cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV can lead to precancerous changes in cervical cells,
which, if left untreated, may progress to cervical cancer.
D. Meningitis is not a typical complication of chlamydia in males. In males, untreated chlamydia can lead to complications such as epididymitis or infertility.
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