What is the primary pathophysiological process that occurs in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
Decreased production of clotting factors
Impaired platelet function
Excessive activation of clotting factors and widespread clot formation
Excessive platelet production
The Correct Answer is C
A. DIC is not characterized by decreased production of clotting factors. Instead, it involves consumption of clotting factors due to widespread activation of coagulation.
B. While platelet dysfunction may occur in DIC due to consumption and depletion of platelets, the primary pathophysiological process in DIC is the activation of clotting factors and formation of blood clots throughout the vasculature.
C. Excessive activation of clotting factors and widespread clot formation is the primary pathophysiological process in DIC. This leads to the formation of numerous small blood clots throughout the body's blood vessels, resulting in organ dysfunction and potentially life-threatening complications.
D. Excessive platelet production is not a characteristic feature of DIC. Instead, platelets are consumed and depleted as they are incorporated into the blood clots formed during the
coagulation cascade in DIC.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Reticulocyte count: Reticulocyte count measures immature red blood cells and is not the primary measure for the effectiveness of filgrastim, which is used to boost white blood cells.
B. White blood count / Absolute neutrophil count: Filgrastim (Neupogen) is used to increase white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Therefore, monitoring the white blood count (WBC) and absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is the appropriate way to determine the effectiveness of the drug.
C. Total lymphocyte count: While lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell, filgrastim primarily affects neutrophils, making WBC/ANC a better indicator.
D. Platelet count: Filgrastim does not directly impact platelet production, so platelet count is not the primary measure of its effectiveness.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "Treatment for vaginal yeast infections must be prescribed by the provider." This statement is correct because antifungal medications, which are required to treat vaginal yeast infections, are prescription-based.
B. "Vaginal yeast infections present as a thick, white discharge." While this is a common symptom of vaginal yeast infections, it alone is not sufficient for diagnosis.
C. "The use of oral contraceptives will decrease the risk for vaginal yeast infections." This statement is incorrect because oral contraceptives may sometimes increase the risk of vaginal yeast infections.
D. "There is usually no itching with vaginal yeast infections as the fungus does not invade the vaginal wall." This statement is incorrect because itching is a common symptom of vaginal yeast infections due to irritation caused by the overgrowth of yeast in the vaginal area.
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