A client with a history of ovarian cysts is seen by the primary health care provider (PHCP).
The client has had 2 previous surgeries related to this condition. Her PHCP recommends an exploratory laparoscopic procedure for the current ovarian cyst, which has persisted for several months. The client states that the prior ovarian cysts were benign and questions the need for this procedure. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
"With your recurrent history, one of these times the cyst will be malignant."
"I appreciate your concern regarding another surgical procedure. Would you like to discuss your concerns?"
"The surgical procedure is minimal, and you will not have to be concerned after you learn the results."
"A prolonged ovarian abnormality should be evaluated thoroughly."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "With your recurrent history, one of these times the cyst will be malignant.": This response is not appropriate as it may cause unnecessary fear and is not supportive or informative.
B. "I appreciate your concern regarding another surgical procedure. Would you like to discuss your concerns?": This response validates the client's feelings and opens a dialogue for further discussion, allowing the client to express her concerns and receive appropriate information and support.
C. "The surgical procedure is minimal, and you will not have to be concerned after you learn the results.": This response dismisses the client's concerns and does not provide an opportunity for discussion.
D. "A prolonged ovarian abnormality should be evaluated thoroughly.": While this statement is true, it does not address the client's immediate concerns and does not encourage an open
discussion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Elevated blood pressure above 140/90. While hypertension can occur in middle age, it is not specifically associated with perimenopause.
B. Report of dryness with vaginal intercourse. Vaginal dryness is a common symptom of perimenopause due to decreasing estrogen levels.
C. Report of urinary retention. Urinary symptoms in perimenopause more commonly include frequency and urgency, rather than retention.
D. Elevated body temperature above 37.8° C (100° F). While hot flashes are common during perimenopause, they do not typically cause a sustained elevated body temperature.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Reticulocyte count: Reticulocyte count measures immature red blood cells and is not the primary measure for the effectiveness of filgrastim, which is used to boost white blood cells.
B. White blood count / Absolute neutrophil count: Filgrastim (Neupogen) is used to increase white blood cells, specifically neutrophils. Therefore, monitoring the white blood count (WBC) and absolute neutrophil count (ANC) is the appropriate way to determine the effectiveness of the drug.
C. Total lymphocyte count: While lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell, filgrastim primarily affects neutrophils, making WBC/ANC a better indicator.
D. Platelet count: Filgrastim does not directly impact platelet production, so platelet count is not the primary measure of its effectiveness.
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