A client with a history of ovarian cysts is seen by the primary health care provider (PHCP).
The client has had 2 previous surgeries related to this condition. Her PHCP recommends an exploratory laparoscopic procedure for the current ovarian cyst, which has persisted for several months. The client states that the prior ovarian cysts were benign and questions the need for this procedure. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
"With your recurrent history, one of these times the cyst will be malignant."
"I appreciate your concern regarding another surgical procedure. Would you like to discuss your concerns?"
"The surgical procedure is minimal, and you will not have to be concerned after you learn the results."
"A prolonged ovarian abnormality should be evaluated thoroughly."
The Correct Answer is B
A. "With your recurrent history, one of these times the cyst will be malignant.": This response is not appropriate as it may cause unnecessary fear and is not supportive or informative.
B. "I appreciate your concern regarding another surgical procedure. Would you like to discuss your concerns?": This response validates the client's feelings and opens a dialogue for further discussion, allowing the client to express her concerns and receive appropriate information and support.
C. "The surgical procedure is minimal, and you will not have to be concerned after you learn the results.": This response dismisses the client's concerns and does not provide an opportunity for discussion.
D. "A prolonged ovarian abnormality should be evaluated thoroughly.": While this statement is true, it does not address the client's immediate concerns and does not encourage an open
discussion.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. DIC is not characterized by decreased production of clotting factors. Instead, it involves consumption of clotting factors due to widespread activation of coagulation.
B. While platelet dysfunction may occur in DIC due to consumption and depletion of platelets, the primary pathophysiological process in DIC is the activation of clotting factors and formation of blood clots throughout the vasculature.
C. Excessive activation of clotting factors and widespread clot formation is the primary pathophysiological process in DIC. This leads to the formation of numerous small blood clots throughout the body's blood vessels, resulting in organ dysfunction and potentially life-threatening complications.
D. Excessive platelet production is not a characteristic feature of DIC. Instead, platelets are consumed and depleted as they are incorporated into the blood clots formed during the
coagulation cascade in DIC.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Clotting is not directly related to the destruction of red blood cells.
B. Cyanosis refers to a bluish discoloration of the skin due to poor circulation or inadequate oxygenation, which is not directly indicative of red blood cell destruction.
C. Jaundice is the yellowing of the skin and eyes caused by the buildup of bilirubin, a byproduct of the destruction of red blood cells, which is a common symptom of hemolytic anemia.
D. Bleeding is not a symptom associated with the destruction of red blood cells but rather a lack of clotting factors or platelets.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
