An 18-year-old male is taking Hydroxyurea for treatment of sickle cell anemia. Which options below indicate this medication is working successfully?
The patient experiences a decrease in hemoglobin S.
The patient experiences dehydration due to diuresis
The patient experiences an increase in fetal hemoglobin (Hbg F)
The patient needs fewer blood transfusions.
The patient experiences diuresis
Correct Answer : C,D
A. The patient experiences a decrease in hemoglobin S. Hydroxyurea does not decrease hemoglobin S levels directly; it works by increasing fetal hemoglobin (Hgb F) levels.
B. The patient experiences dehydration due to diuresis. This is not an indication that Hydroxyurea is working; it is a potential side effect that should be monitored.
C. The patient experiences an increase in fetal hemoglobin (Hbg F). Hydroxyurea works by increasing the levels of fetal hemoglobin, which reduces the sickling of red blood cells.
D. The patient needs fewer blood transfusions. Successful treatment with Hydroxyurea should reduce the frequency of vaso-occlusive crises and the need for blood transfusions.
E. The patient experiences diuresis. This is not an indicator of the medication's effectiveness; it is a potential side effect.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Syphilis can indeed affect many areas of the body, including the brain and heart, but this statement does not specifically address primary syphilis, which is characterized by the appearance of a painless sore (chancre) at the site of infection.
B. Syphilis does not typically resolve on its own. Without treatment, the infection can progress to more severe stages with potentially serious complications.
C. Syphilis is caused by a bacterial infection (Treponema pallidum) and is treated with antibiotics such as penicillin. Antiviral medications are not effective against bacterial infections like syphilis.
D. This statement is accurate and important for the prevention of syphilis transmission. Syphilis can be transmitted through vaginal, anal, or oral sex, but the risk of transmission is lower during oral sex compared to vaginal or anal intercourse.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
A. Scrotal warmth and redness are not typically early signs of testicular cancer. Common signs include painless testicular swelling or a lump.
B. Close male relatives of individuals with testicular cancer have a higher risk of developing the disease themselves, suggesting a genetic component.
C. Testicular cancer typically occurs in younger men, with the highest incidence between ages 15 to 40.
D. Testicular cancer usually affects only one testicle, though it can occur in both.
E. Impotence is not a common complication of orchiectomy, the surgical removal of one or both testicles. However, other complications such as infertility may occur.
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