The nurse is performing a functional assessment on an older client who lost five pounds (2.27 Kg) of weight since the last visit 12 weeks ago, and who reports a decrease in energy and appetite. Which action should the nurse include during the assessment?
Request to have the client lie as still as possible for the assessment.
Ask the client how often episodes of sundowning are experienced.
Question the client about the frequency of falls in recent months.
Assist the client with clarifying values about end-of-life care
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect - Requesting the client to lie still may be relevant for certain assessments, but it is not specific to the situation described in the question.
B) Incorrect - Inquiring about episodes of sundowning is more relevant for clients with cognitive impairment and is not directly related to the client's weight loss and decreased energy and appetite.
C) Correct - Questioning the client about the frequency of falls is important, as falls can contribute to weight loss, decreased energy, and appetite changes in older adults.
D) Incorrect - Assisting the client with clarifying values about end-of-life care is a valuable nursing intervention but is not the priority in this assessment scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Gravida: The client has been pregnant five times: three times she gave birth to term babies, once she gave birth to preterm twins, and once she had a spontaneous abortion.
Term births: She has given birth three times: at 38 weeks, 41 weeks, and 35 weeks (twins). These are all considered term births. Term pregnancies are 37 weeks and beyond. So, the number of term births is 2.
Preterm births: She had one birth at 35 weeks, which is considered preterm. So, the number of preterm births is 1.
Abortions: She had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks' gestation. So, the number of abortions is 1.
Living children: All of her children are alive and well. So, the number of living children is 4.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
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