A client experiencing an acute dystonic reaction presents with a laryngeal spasm. Which treatment should the nurse prepare?
Intravenous administration of benztropine.
Oral administration of divalproex.
Intravenous administration of isotonic crystalloid fluid.
Oral administration of lorazepam.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.
B) Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C) Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D) Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is the best initial intervention for the PN to implement because it promotes comfort, relaxation, and circulation for the client. A back rub can also reduce anxiety and muscle tension, which can interfere with sleep. The PN should use non-pharmacological methods to facilitate sleep before resorting to medication.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- An oil retention enema is used to soften the stool and lubricate the rectum, making it easier to pass the stool. It is usually oil-based and contains 90-120 ml of solution.
- The temperature of the enema solution affects the effectiveness and comfort of the procedure. If the solution is too hot or cold, it can cause pain, cramps, or damage to the rectal tissue³. If the solution is too warm, it can also stimulate peristalsis and cause the client to expel the enema before it has time to work.
- The ideal temperature for an enema solution is close to the client’s body temperature, which is around 98°F or 36°C. This temperature ensures that the solution is comfortable and does not cause adverse reactions.
Option A is incorrect because the client’s comfort level may not reflect the optimal temperature for the enema.
Option B is incorrect because the temperature of the enema does affect its effectiveness and safety.
Option D is incorrect because the temperature is too high and can cause harm to the client.
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