A client experiencing an acute dystonic reaction presents with a laryngeal spasm. Which treatment should the nurse prepare?
Intravenous administration of benztropine.
Oral administration of divalproex.
Intravenous administration of isotonic crystalloid fluid.
Oral administration of lorazepam.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.
B) Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C) Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D) Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Croup is a respiratory infection that causes inflammation and narrowing of the airway, resulting in a barking cough, hoarseness, and stridor. The PN should monitor the child's oxygen saturation level via pulse oximetry, as it can indicate the severity of the airway obstruction and the need for supplemental oxygen or other interventions.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- While bedtime monitoring is important, the frequency described in this choice is not consistent with FSBG monitoring before meals.
B) Correct- Performing FSBG monitoring before each meal helps the client track her blood glucose levels before consuming food, allowing her to adjust her diet or insulin regimen if necessary.
C) Incorrect- Monitoring every two hours may be excessive and not necessary for managing gestational diabetes.
D) Incorrect- Monitoring during the night is important for glycemic control, but it doesn't specifically address the need to monitor before meals.
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