A client experiencing an acute dystonic reaction presents with a laryngeal spasm. Which treatment should the nurse prepare?
Intravenous administration of benztropine.
Oral administration of divalproex.
Intravenous administration of isotonic crystalloid fluid.
Oral administration of lorazepam.
The Correct Answer is A
A) Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.
B) Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C) Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D) Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct - Flaring of the nares is a sign of increased respiratory effort and can indicate acute respiratory distress.
B) Incorrect - While a resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min is elevated for a 4-month-old infant, it may not necessarily indicate acute distress, especially when considered along with other signs.
C) Incorrect - Bilateral bronchial breath sounds may indicate lung pathology, but they are not specific to acute respiratory distress.
D) Incorrect - Diaphragmatic respirations, where the abdomen moves more than the chest during breathing, are normal for infants. They do not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- An 18-year-old client with a mild mental disability is a client who has a lower than average intellectual functioning and some limitations in adaptive skills, such as communication, socialization, and self-care. A mild mental disability may affect the client's ability to understand, cope, or cooperate with medical interventions, such as ambulation after surgery.
- Ambulation is the act of walking or moving around. It is an important part of postoperative care, as it helps to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, atelectasis, constipation, and pressure ulcers. Ambulation also promotes circulation, wound healing, and muscle strength.
- When the practical nurse (PN) attempts to assist the client to ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy, the client becomes angry and says, "PN, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!" This may indicate that the client is experiencing pain, fear, anxiety, or frustration due to the surgery and the recovery process.
- The best response for the PN to make is to acknowledge the client's feelings, provide reassurance and support, and set a clear and realistic goal for ambulation. This will help to establish rapport, reduce resistance, and motivate the client to participate in the care plan.
- Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it shows empathy and respect for the client's feelings, while also informing the client of the expectation and time frame for ambulation. Option D also allows the client some time to prepare mentally and physically for the activity.
Options A, B, and C are incorrect answers, as they do not address the client's emotional needs or demonstrate effective communication skills.
Option A is incorrect because it uses a threatening tone and does not acknowledge the client's feelings.
Option B is incorrect because it assumes that the client feels angry about the pain of ambulation, which may not be true or helpful.
Option C is incorrect because it appeals to authority and does not explain the rationale or benefits of ambulation.
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