A client experiencing an acute dystonic reaction presents with a laryngeal spasm. Which treatment should the nurse prepare?

Intravenous administration of benztropine.

Oral administration of divalproex.

Intravenous administration of isotonic crystalloid fluid.

Oral administration of lorazepam.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A)   Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.

B)   Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C)   Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D)   Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.

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Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

The PN should palpate the rate and volume of the pulse, measure body weight at the same time daily, and observe the color and amount of urine when assessing a client for signs and symptoms of ﬂuid volume excess. These actions can help detect changes in the cardiovascular, renal, and ﬂuid balance systems that may indicate ﬂuid overloads, such as tachycardia, bounding pulse, weight gain, edema, oliguria, or dark urine.

The other options are not correct because:

B. Checking fingernails for the presence of clubbing is not relevant for assessing ﬂuid volume excess, as clubbing is a sign of chronic hypoxia or lung disease that causes enlargement of the fingertips and nails.

E. Comparing muscle strength of both arms is not relevant for assessing ﬂuid volume excess, as muscle weakness is not a specific sign of ﬂuid overload, but may be caused by various factors such as electrolyte imbalance, nerve damage, or fatigue.

A. Auscultate for irregular heart rate. B. Monitor daily sodium intake. C. Document abdominal girth. D. Measure ankle circumference

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Correct- Electrolyte imbalances, particularly involving electrolytes like potassium, can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Elevated blood pressure can strain the cardiovascular system, and mental status changes could indicate potential neurologic and cardiovascular involvement. Auscultating for an irregular heart rate helps identify any immediate cardiac issues that require intervention.
B) Incorrect- While monitoring sodium intake is important for clients with chronic kidney disease, it is not the most urgent action in this scenario. The presence of electrolyte imbalance, elevated blood pressure, and changes in mental status indicate a more acute concern that requires immediate assessment.
C) Incorrect- Documenting abdominal girth is relevant for assessing fluid status, but in this situation, the presence of electrolyte imbalance, elevated blood pressure, and mental status changes indicates a more critical issue that requires prompt intervention.

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A client experiencing an acute dystonic reaction presents with a laryngeal spasm. Which treatment should the nurse prepare?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which actions should the practical nurse (PN) include when assessing a client for signs and symptoms of ﬂuid volume excess? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]

Explanation

The nurse identifies an electrolyte imbalance, elevated blood pressure, and exhibited changes in mental status for a client with chronic kidney disease. Which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Patient Data Exhibits Which 3 responses should the diabetic nurse educator provide?

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