An elderly client is 12-hours postoperative for a hernia repair and suddenly becomes agitated, staggers out into the corridor, and demands to be set free.
After assisting the client back to bed and administering pain medication, which intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?
Administer a prescribed narcotic antagonist to reverse the effects of any analgesic accumulation
Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for restraints to minimize the client's danger to self.
Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative
Instruct a UAP to keep the upper side rails up and check on the client every 15 minutes until the client is resting.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is c. Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative. This intervention ensures the client’s safety and provides familiar support, which can help reorient and calm the client.
Choice A reason: Administering a prescribed narcotic antagonist assumes the agitation is due to narcotic accumulation without evidence. This could lead to unnecessary medication administration.
Choice B reason: Requesting restraints should be a last resort due to the risks of injury and increased agitation. Restraints can also lead to further complications.
Choice C reason: Raising the side rails and involving the family provides immediate safety and emotional support, which can help reorient the client. Familiar faces can be very calming and reassuring.
Choice D reason: Instructing a UAP to check on the client every 15 minutes lacks the immediate family support that can help reorient the client. Continuous monitoring is important, but family involvement is more effective.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Skipped eating lunch would more likely cause hypoglycemia rather than diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). When a person with type 1 diabetes skips a meal but still takes insulin, blood glucose levels drop, leading to hypoglycemia, not the elevated glucose and ketone production seen in DKA.
B. Incorrectly administered too much insulin would also result in hypoglycemia rather than DKA. Administering excessive insulin causes blood glucose levels to fall too low, which does not trigger the fat breakdown and ketone production that characterize DKA.
C. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days is the most likely cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Illness and infection cause the body to release stress hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline, which increase blood glucose levels and counteract insulin. In type 1 diabetes, insufficient insulin leads to hyperglycemia, fat breakdown for energy, and the production of ketones, resulting in DKA.
D. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class would not cause DKA. Consuming extra food may raise blood glucose temporarily, but it would not lead to the severe insulin deficiency and ketone production seen in DKA, especially if the adolescent took insulin as prescribed.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- This response might address the client's concern but doesn't directly address her dichotomous thinking or provide immediate therapeutic communication.
B) Incorrect- While showing happiness for the client's improvement is positive, this response does not address the client's behavior or engage with her dichotomous tendency.
C) Incorrect- This response acknowledges the client's liking but doesn't address the dichotomous thinking pattern or provide an effective therapeutic response.
D) Correct- answering this question encourages the client to express her concerns and perceptions, fostering communication. This approach acknowledges the client's feelings and provides an opportunity for her to discuss the issue, potentially leading to a productive conversation.
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