An elderly client is 12-hours postoperative for a hernia repair and suddenly becomes agitated, staggers out into the corridor, and demands to be set free.
After assisting the client back to bed and administering pain medication, which intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?
Administer a prescribed narcotic antagonist to reverse the effects of any analgesic accumulation
Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for restraints to minimize the client's danger to self.
Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative
Instruct a UAP to keep the upper side rails up and check on the client every 15 minutes until the client is resting.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is c. Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative. This intervention ensures the client’s safety and provides familiar support, which can help reorient and calm the client.
Choice A reason: Administering a prescribed narcotic antagonist assumes the agitation is due to narcotic accumulation without evidence. This could lead to unnecessary medication administration.
Choice B reason: Requesting restraints should be a last resort due to the risks of injury and increased agitation. Restraints can also lead to further complications.
Choice C reason: Raising the side rails and involving the family provides immediate safety and emotional support, which can help reorient the client. Familiar faces can be very calming and reassuring.
Choice D reason: Instructing a UAP to check on the client every 15 minutes lacks the immediate family support that can help reorient the client. Continuous monitoring is important, but family involvement is more effective.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This client should be reassessed by the RN prior to transfer, as worsening perineal pain may indicate a hematoma, infection, or inadequate pain management. The RN should inspect the perineum, check the vital signs, and evaluate the effectiveness of the medication.
The other options are not correct because:
B. A multigravida whose peri-pad is 1/4 saturated with lochia rubra after one hour does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Lochia rubra is a red-colored vaginal discharge that contains blood and debris from the placental site, and it usually lasts for 3 to 4 days after delivery. A peri-pad that is 1/4 saturated after one hour is within the expected range of blood loss.
C. A multigravida complaining of strong afterbirth pains when breastfeeding does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Afterbirth pains are cramps caused by uterine contractions that help shrink the uterus and prevent bleeding. They are more common and intense in multiparous women and during breastfeeding, as oxytocin is released and stimulates contractions.
D. A primigravida who passed a small clot when she sat up on the edge of the bed does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Small clots may form in the uterus or vagina due to pooling of blood during rest or anesthesia, and they are usually expelled when changing position or ambulating. As long as the clot is smaller than a plum and there is no excessive bleeding or pain, it is not a cause for concern.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Croup is a respiratory infection that causes inflammation and narrowing of the airway, resulting in a barking cough, hoarseness, and stridor. The PN should monitor the child's oxygen saturation level via pulse oximetry, as it can indicate the severity of the airway obstruction and the need for supplemental oxygen or other interventions.
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