An elderly client is 12-hours postoperative for a hernia repair and suddenly becomes agitated, staggers out into the corridor, and demands to be set free.

After assisting the client back to bed and administering pain medication, which intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Administer a prescribed narcotic antagonist to reverse the eﬀects of any analgesic accumulation

Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for restraints to minimize the client's danger to self.

Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative

Instruct a UAP to keep the upper side rails up and check on the client every 15 minutes until the client is resting.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The correct answer is c. Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative. This intervention ensures the client’s safety and provides familiar support, which can help reorient and calm the client.

Choice A reason: Administering a prescribed narcotic antagonist assumes the agitation is due to narcotic accumulation without evidence. This could lead to unnecessary medication administration.

Choice B reason: Requesting restraints should be a last resort due to the risks of injury and increased agitation. Restraints can also lead to further complications.

Choice C reason: Raising the side rails and involving the family provides immediate safety and emotional support, which can help reorient the client. Familiar faces can be very calming and reassuring.

Choice D reason: Instructing a UAP to check on the client every 15 minutes lacks the immediate family support that can help reorient the client. Continuous monitoring is important, but family involvement is more effective.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.

B) Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C) Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D) Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.

A. Enroll the UAP in a hospital education class on conducting safe client care. B. Stop the procedure and tell the UAP to place the client in Fowler's position. C. Praise the UAP for doing the oral hygiene but encourage family participation. D. Tell the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely. E. None F. None

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Enrolling the UAP in a hospital education class on conducting safe client care is unnecessary at this moment. The immediate concern is ensuring the client's safety during the procedure.

B. Stopping the procedure and instructing the UAP to place the client in Fowler's position (or at least semi-Fowler's) is the correct action. This position helps prevent aspiration during oral hygiene for an unconscious client.

C. Praising the UAP for performing oral hygiene does not address the safety risk present in this situation. While family participation is encouraged, it should not be the focus here.

D. Telling the UAP to continue because the unconscious client is positioned safely is incorrect, as the flat side-lying position increases the risk of aspiration. Ensuring the client is positioned properly is essential for their safety.

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An elderly client is 12-hours postoperative for a hernia repair and suddenly becomes agitated, staggers out into the corridor, and demands to be set free. After assisting the client back to bed and administering pain medication, which intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client experiencing an acute dystonic reaction presents with a laryngeal spasm. Which treatment should the nurse prepare?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The practical nurse (PN) observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) performing oral hygiene on an unconscious client who is lying in a ﬂat side-lying position with an emesis basin on the bedside table near the chin. Which action should the PN take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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An elderly client is 12-hours postoperative for a hernia repair and suddenly becomes agitated, staggers out into the corridor, and demands to be set free.

After assisting the client back to bed and administering pain medication, which intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?