An elderly client is 12-hours postoperative for a hernia repair and suddenly becomes agitated, staggers out into the corridor, and demands to be set free.

After assisting the client back to bed and administering pain medication, which intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Administer a prescribed narcotic antagonist to reverse the eﬀects of any analgesic accumulation

Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for restraints to minimize the client's danger to self.

Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative

Instruct a UAP to keep the upper side rails up and check on the client every 15 minutes until the client is resting.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The correct answer is c. Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative. This intervention ensures the client’s safety and provides familiar support, which can help reorient and calm the client.

Choice A reason: Administering a prescribed narcotic antagonist assumes the agitation is due to narcotic accumulation without evidence. This could lead to unnecessary medication administration.

Choice B reason: Requesting restraints should be a last resort due to the risks of injury and increased agitation. Restraints can also lead to further complications.

Choice C reason: Raising the side rails and involving the family provides immediate safety and emotional support, which can help reorient the client. Familiar faces can be very calming and reassuring.

Choice D reason: Instructing a UAP to check on the client every 15 minutes lacks the immediate family support that can help reorient the client. Continuous monitoring is important, but family involvement is more effective.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Incorrect- This response might address the client's concern but doesn't directly address her dichotomous thinking or provide immediate therapeutic communication.
B) Incorrect- While showing happiness for the client's improvement is positive, this response does not address the client's behavior or engage with her dichotomous tendency.
C) Incorrect- This response acknowledges the client's liking but doesn't address the dichotomous thinking pattern or provide an effective therapeutic response.
D) Correct- answering this question encourages the client to express her concerns and perceptions, fostering communication. This approach acknowledges the client's feelings and provides an opportunity for her to discuss the issue, potentially leading to a productive conversation.

A. Oﬀer nipple feedings of 10% dextrose. B. Begin frequent feedings of breast milk or formula C. Repeat the heel stick for glucose in one hour D. Assess for signs of hypocalcemia

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

b. Begin frequent feedings of breast milk or formula.

The infant has hypoglycemia, which is a low blood glucose level that can cause jiteriness, lethargy, seizures, or coma. Hypoglycemia is common in infants of mothers with gestational diabetes, as they produce excess insulin in response to high maternal glucose levels. The PN should begin frequent feedings of breast milk or formula, as this can provide a source of glucose and stimulate the infant's own glucose production.

The other options are not correct because:

a. Oﬀering nipple feedings of 10% dextrose may be indicated in some cases of severe hypoglycemia, but it is not the first intervention. The PN should try oral feedings of breast milk or formula first, as they are more natural and less invasive.

c. Repeating the heel stick for glucose in one hour may be necessary to monitor the infant's glucose level, but it is not the first intervention. The PN should treat the hypoglycemia first, as it can have serious consequences if left untreated.

d. Assessing for signs of hypocalcemia may be important, as hypocalcemia is another possible complication in infants of mothers with gestational diabetes, but it is not the first intervention. The PN should address the hypoglycemia first, as it is more urgent and more likely to cause jiteriness.

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An elderly client is 12-hours postoperative for a hernia repair and suddenly becomes agitated, staggers out into the corridor, and demands to be set free. After assisting the client back to bed and administering pain medication, which intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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An elderly client is 12-hours postoperative for a hernia repair and suddenly becomes agitated, staggers out into the corridor, and demands to be set free.

After assisting the client back to bed and administering pain medication, which intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?