An oil retention enema is prescribed for a hospitalized client. The practical nurse (PN) should administer the enema solution at which temperature?
The solution should approximate the client's body temperature (98°F or 36°C).
The temperature of the enema is unrelated to the enema's effectiveness.
The solution temperature should be determined by the client's comfort level.
The temperature should be higher (110°F or 43°C) than the client's body temperature.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is Choice A:
The solution should approximate the client's body temperature (98°F or 36°C). Choice A rationale:
The ideal temperature for administering an oil retention enema is to approximate the client's body temperature. Using a solution at the client's body temperature helps to prevent discomfort and potential injury to the rectal mucosa. The temperature of 98°F (36°C) is considered safe and comfortable for the client.
Choice B rationale:
This option is incorrect because the temperature of the enema solution does matter. Administering an enema that is too cold or too hot can cause discomfort, cramping, and potential damage to the rectal tissue.
Choice C rationale:
This option is not the best choice because relying solely on the client's comfort level may not ensure the optimal temperature for the enema solution. The client's perception of comfort can vary, and it may not necessarily reflect the ideal temperature for administration.
Choice D rationale:
This option is incorrect because using a temperature higher than the client's body temperature, such as 110°F (43°C), can be harmful and increase the risk of burns or injury to the rectal lining.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Crushing the medication and administering it in applesauce might alter its pharmacokinetics, rendering it ineffective or causing it to act too quickly. Sublingual tablets are designed to dissolve under the tongue for rapid absorption into the bloodstream. Crushing the tablet and mixing it with applesauce could change its intended mode of action.
Choice B rationale:
Placing the tablet under the client's tongue is the correct action for a sublingual tablet. Sublingual administration allows the medication to dissolve directly into the bloodstream through the sublingual mucosa, bypassing the digestive system and providing rapid onset of action.
Choice C rationale:
Obtaining a liquid form of the medication might be an option, but it may not always be available. Additionally, some medications are not available in liquid forms, and the liquid form might have a slower onset of action compared to the sublingual route.
Choice D rationale:
Placing the tablet inside the client's cheek is known as the buccal route of administration. While this route is also for oral absorption, sublingual administration is preferred for specific medications designed for rapid absorption.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
PVCs are abnormal heartbeats that occur when a ventricle contracts earlier than expected. They can indicate electrolyte imbalance, such as hypokalemia, which can result from NG suctioning. The PN should report this finding to the healthcare provider, as it may require treatment or adjustment of the suctioning.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Hyperactive bowel sounds on assessment may indicate increased peristalsis or bowel obstruction, but they are not related to the client's symptoms or NG suctioning.
C. Hypoactive bowel sounds on assessment may indicate decreased peristalsis or ileus, which are expected after bowel surgery and do not require immediate intervention.
D. Regular heart rate of 100 beats per minute on telemetry may indicate tachycardia, which can have various causes, but it is not as concerning as PVCs in this context.
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