An oil retention enema is prescribed for a hospitalized client. The practical nurse (PN) should administer the enema solution at which temperature?
The solution should approximate the client's body temperature (98°F or 36°C).
The temperature of the enema is unrelated to the enema's effectiveness.
The solution temperature should be determined by the client's comfort level.
The temperature should be higher (110°F or 43°C) than the client's body temperature.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is Choice A:
The solution should approximate the client's body temperature (98°F or 36°C). Choice A rationale:
The ideal temperature for administering an oil retention enema is to approximate the client's body temperature. Using a solution at the client's body temperature helps to prevent discomfort and potential injury to the rectal mucosa. The temperature of 98°F (36°C) is considered safe and comfortable for the client.
Choice B rationale:
This option is incorrect because the temperature of the enema solution does matter. Administering an enema that is too cold or too hot can cause discomfort, cramping, and potential damage to the rectal tissue.
Choice C rationale:
This option is not the best choice because relying solely on the client's comfort level may not ensure the optimal temperature for the enema solution. The client's perception of comfort can vary, and it may not necessarily reflect the ideal temperature for administration.
Choice D rationale:
This option is incorrect because using a temperature higher than the client's body temperature, such as 110°F (43°C), can be harmful and increase the risk of burns or injury to the rectal lining.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A thready pulse is a weak and rapid pulse that is easily obliterated by light pressure. It indicates poor blood flow and perfusion, and may be caused by conditions such as shock, dehydration, or hemorrhage.
The other options are not correct because:
- A missing pulse is a pulse that is absent or cannot be detected, even with firm pressure. It indicates a complete blockage of blood flow, and may be caused by conditions such as arterial occlusion, embolism, or trauma.
- Light pressure applied to pulse is not a documentation of the pulse quality, but a description of the technique used to palpate the pulse.
- Pulse skips beats is a documentation of an irregular pulse rhythm, not a pulse volume. It indicates that the heart beats are unevenly spaced, and may be caused by conditions such as arrhythmia, stress, or caffeine intake.
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Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Correct Answer: C. Measure the next voiding, then palpate the client's bladder.
Choice A rationale:
Catheterizing the client for residual urine volume is not necessary at this point because the woman has recently given birth, and frequent urination is common during the postpartum period. Additionally, catheterization poses risks of infection, so it should be reserved for situations where it is clinically indicated.
Choice B rationale:
Evaluating for normal involution and massaging the fundus is not relevant in this context. Fundal massage is performed after childbirth to ensure the uterus contracts and prevents excessive bleeding. The woman's concern is about frequent urination, which does not require fundal massage.
Choice C rationale:
Measuring the next voiding and palpating the client's bladder is the most appropriate action. The woman's increased frequency of urination could be due to postpartum diuresis, a normal physiological process where the body eliminates excess fluid accumulated during pregnancy. By measuring the next voiding and palpating the bladder, the nurse can assess for bladder distension or retention, which could be signs of a problem.
Choice D rationale:
Obtaining a specimen for urine culture and sensitivity is not indicated in this situation. There is no evidence to suggest that the woman has a urinary tract infection or other urinary issues that would warrant a urine culture at this time.
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