The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client with a new prescription for fluticasone furoate nasal spray, a glucocorticoid prescribed for the client's nasal allergy symptoms.
In reinforcing instructions about self-administration of the nasal spray, the PN should emphasize the need for the client to take which action before self-administration?
Exhale through the mouth.
Gently blow the nose.
Check glucose level before and after administration.
Deep breathe and cough.
The Correct Answer is B
This is the action that the PN should emphasize for the client to take before self-administration of the nasal spray because it clears the nasal passages of mucus and debris and allows for better absorption of the medication. The PN should also instruct the client to shake the botle well, tilt the head slightly forward, insert the nozzle into one nostril, close the other nostril with a finger, and press the pump while inhaling gently.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice A:
The solution should approximate the client's body temperature (98°F or 36°C). Choice A rationale:
The ideal temperature for administering an oil retention enema is to approximate the client's body temperature. Using a solution at the client's body temperature helps to prevent discomfort and potential injury to the rectal mucosa. The temperature of 98°F (36°C) is considered safe and comfortable for the client.
Choice B rationale:
This option is incorrect because the temperature of the enema solution does matter. Administering an enema that is too cold or too hot can cause discomfort, cramping, and potential damage to the rectal tissue.
Choice C rationale:
This option is not the best choice because relying solely on the client's comfort level may not ensure the optimal temperature for the enema solution. The client's perception of comfort can vary, and it may not necessarily reflect the ideal temperature for administration.
Choice D rationale:
This option is incorrect because using a temperature higher than the client's body temperature, such as 110°F (43°C), can be harmful and increase the risk of burns or injury to the rectal lining.
Correct Answer is ["C"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Initiation of changes in infection control measures.
Choice A rationale:
Limiting the client’s fluid intake to avoid hemodilution is not relevant to managing a decreased ANC. Hemodilution is not a concern in this context, and fluid intake should generally be maintained to support overall health.
Choice B rationale:
Avoiding exposure to cold temperatures is not directly related to managing a decreased ANC. While keeping the client comfortable is important, it does not address the increased risk of infection associated with neutropenia.
Choice C rationale:
Initiation of changes in infection control measures is crucial when a client’s ANC decreases. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, so enhanced infection control practices, such as strict hand hygiene, use of protective isolation, and monitoring for signs of infection, are essential to protect the client.
Choice D rationale:
Increasing the client’s dietary servings of fruits and vegetables is generally beneficial for overall health but does not specifically address the immediate risks associated with a decreased ANC. In fact, certain fresh fruits and vegetables might need to be avoided if they pose a risk of introducing pathogens.
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