A client who is 39 weeks gestation calls the labor and delivery unit to report that she is experiencing mild, irregular contractions. She tells the practical nurse (PN) that the healthcare provider examined her in the clinic today, and her cervix was 3 cm dilated, with intact membranes, and the presenting part was at -1 station. Which intervention should the PN implement?
Tell her to empty her bladder and call if she has a bloody show.
Direct her to come to the unit for impending delivery.
Ask the charge nurse for further instructions.
Encourage ambulation until the contractions are regular.
The Correct Answer is A
The correct answer is choice A: Tell her to empty her bladder and call if she has a bloody show.
Choice A rationale:
The client is 39 weeks gestation and experiencing mild, irregular contractions. The fact that her cervix is already 3 cm dilated and the presenting part is at -1 station indicates that she is in early labor. Emptying the bladder can help relieve pressure on the cervix and promote progress in labor. Instructing her to call if she has a bloody show is essential because it could indicate that her labor is advancing, and she may need to come to the labor and delivery unit soon.
Choice B rationale:
Directing her to come to the unit for impending delivery is not appropriate at this stage, as she is only experiencing mild, irregular contractions and is likely in early labor. Coming to the unit too early may lead to unnecessary interventions and discomfort for the client.
Choice C rationale:
Asking the charge nurse for further instructions is not necessary in this situation. The client's condition is not emergent, and the practical nurse can handle the situation appropriately based on the information provided.
Choice D rationale:
Encouraging ambulation until the contractions are regular might be beneficial in some cases to promote labor progress. However, given that the client is already 3 cm dilated and experiencing mild, irregular contractions, it's better to address the issue of bladder emptying and potential bloody show.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["0.6"]
Explanation
Step 1: The medication is prescribed as 30 mg every 12 hours, which means it is given twice a day. So, the total daily dosage in mg is 30 mg × 2 = 60 mg.
Step 2: The medication is available in 30 mg per 0.3 mL. So, to find out how many mL correspond to 60 mg, we set up a proportion: (30 mg / 0.3 mL) = (60 mg / x mL). Solving for x gives x = (0.3 mL / 30 mg) × 60 mg = 0.6 mL.
Therefore, the practical nurse should administer 0.6 mL of the medication each day.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is the greatest health risk for this client because he is likely to inject cocaine and heroin intravenously and share needles with other drug users, which can transmit blood-borne infections such as hepatitis B or C. Hepatitis can cause liver inflammation, cirrhosis, or cancer and may be fatal if untreated.
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