In assessing a 2-year-old boy with croup, the practical nurse (PN) finds that he has become increasingly irritable and has developed tachypnea and resting stridor. Which intervention is best for the PN to implement?
Instruct the mother to play with the child for stimulation and distraction.
Administer a dose of acetaminophen as needed.
Monitor the child's oxygen saturation level via pulse oximetry.
Encourage the child to drink adequate amounts of fluids.
The Correct Answer is C
Croup is a respiratory infection that causes inflammation and narrowing of the airway, resulting in a barking cough, hoarseness, and stridor. The PN should monitor the child's oxygen saturation level via pulse oximetry, as it can indicate the severity of the airway obstruction and the need for supplemental oxygen or other interventions.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Instructing the mother to play with the child for stimulation and distraction may worsen the child's condition, as it can increase his respiratory demand and anxiety.
B. Administering a dose of acetaminophen as needed may help reduce fever or pain, but it does not address the underlying cause of croup or improve airway patency.
D. Encouraging the child to drink adequate amounts of fluids may help prevent dehydration and thin the secretions, but it does not relieve the inflammation or narrowing of the airway.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is the best initial intervention for the PN to implement because it promotes comfort, relaxation, and circulation for the client. A back rub can also reduce anxiety and muscle tension, which can interfere with sleep. The PN should use non-pharmacological methods to facilitate sleep before resorting to medication.
A. Offering the client a prescribed sleep medication is not the best initial intervention because it may have side effects or interactions with other drugs. The PN should assess the client's need for medication and use it as a last resort.
C. Administering an as-needed (PRN) prescription for pain is not the best initial intervention because it may not address the cause of the client's difficulty in sleeping. The PN should assess the client's pain level and use other methods to relieve pain before giving medication.
D. Providing a cup of hot chocolate at bedtime is not the best initial intervention because it may contain caffeine, which can stimulate the central nervous system and keep the client awake. The PN should avoid giving caffeinated beverages to the client before bedtime.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is choice C. Coffee-ground secretions draining via nasogastric tube suction.
Choice A rationale:
Oral ice chips eaten 30 minutes after vomiting postoperatively could be considered normal in some cases. However, this finding may not require immediate reporting to the RN unless
other concerning symptoms are present. Choice B rationale:
The inability to void 4 hours after discontinuing an indwelling catheter is not an immediate concern. It's not uncommon for some clients to experience difficulty urinating initially after catheter removal. The client should be closely monitored, and the RN should be informed if the situation persists or worsens.
Choice C rationale:
This is the correct answer because coffee-ground secretions draining via nasogastric tube suction can indicate bleeding in the gastrointestinal tract, potentially from the stomach or esophagus. This finding requires immediate attention as it could be a sign of a serious condition and may require urgent intervention.
Choice D rationale:
Ineffective pain management reported while using morphine PCA is a concern but may not be as critical as the coffee-ground secretions. The PN should still report this finding to the RN for appropriate assessment and possible adjustment of pain management, but it may not warrant immediate reporting.
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