When the practical nurse (PN) attempts to assist an 18-year-old client with a mild mental disability to ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy, she becomes angry and says, "PN, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!" Which response is best for the PN to make?
"You must ambulate to avoid complications which could cause more discomfort than ambulating."
"I know you feel angry about the pain of ambulation, but this is a necessary part of getting well."
"Your healthcare provider has left specific instructions to ambulate on the first postoperative day."
"I will be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room today."
The Correct Answer is D
- An 18-year-old client with a mild mental disability is a client who has a lower than average intellectual functioning and some limitations in adaptive skills, such as communication, socialization, and self-care. A mild mental disability may affect the client's ability to understand, cope, or cooperate with medical interventions, such as ambulation after surgery.
- Ambulation is the act of walking or moving around. It is an important part of postoperative care, as it helps to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, atelectasis, constipation, and pressure ulcers. Ambulation also promotes circulation, wound healing, and muscle strength.
- When the practical nurse (PN) attempts to assist the client to ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy, the client becomes angry and says, "PN, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!" This may indicate that the client is experiencing pain, fear, anxiety, or frustration due to the surgery and the recovery process.
- The best response for the PN to make is to acknowledge the client's feelings, provide reassurance and support, and set a clear and realistic goal for ambulation. This will help to establish rapport, reduce resistance, and motivate the client to participate in the care plan.
- Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it shows empathy and respect for the client's feelings, while also informing the client of the expectation and time frame for ambulation. Option D also allows the client some time to prepare mentally and physically for the activity.
Options A, B, and C are incorrect answers, as they do not address the client's emotional needs or demonstrate effective communication skills.
Option A is incorrect because it uses a threatening tone and does not acknowledge the client's feelings.
Option B is incorrect because it assumes that the client feels angry about the pain of ambulation, which may not be true or helpful.
Option C is incorrect because it appeals to authority and does not explain the rationale or benefits of ambulation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- While the history of vomiting is important to assess, it may not be the most crucial information to gather at this point, as the client is postoperative and the focus is on immediate postoperative care.
B) Incorrect- While assessing for fluid intake is important, the client's refusal of ice chips is not an urgent concern compared to other potential complications, such as pain management, oxygenation, and fluid balance.
C) Incorrect- These assessments are important, but the client's history of right hemicolectomy and the current infusion and medication administration require closer attention to fluid balance, pain control, and oxygenation.
D) Correct- While all options are important to consider, the most critical information in this scenario is assessing peripheral pulses and the range of motion of both legs. A right hemicolectomy involves abdominal surgery and decreased or absent peripheral pulses along with a limited range of motion could indicate impaired circulation, thrombosis, or other post-operative complications. These findings might necessitate prompt intervention to prevent potential complications.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This client should be reassessed by the RN prior to transfer, as worsening perineal pain may indicate a hematoma, infection, or inadequate pain management. The RN should inspect the perineum, check the vital signs, and evaluate the effectiveness of the medication.
The other options are not correct because:
B. A multigravida whose peri-pad is 1/4 saturated with lochia rubra after one hour does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Lochia rubra is a red-colored vaginal discharge that contains blood and debris from the placental site, and it usually lasts for 3 to 4 days after delivery. A peri-pad that is 1/4 saturated after one hour is within the expected range of blood loss.
C. A multigravida complaining of strong afterbirth pains when breastfeeding does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Afterbirth pains are cramps caused by uterine contractions that help shrink the uterus and prevent bleeding. They are more common and intense in multiparous women and during breastfeeding, as oxytocin is released and stimulates contractions.
D. A primigravida who passed a small clot when she sat up on the edge of the bed does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Small clots may form in the uterus or vagina due to pooling of blood during rest or anesthesia, and they are usually expelled when changing position or ambulating. As long as the clot is smaller than a plum and there is no excessive bleeding or pain, it is not a cause for concern.
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