A chronically depressed older male resident of a long-term care facility has become more reclusive and today refuses to leave his room. His family has moved away and are unable to visit as much as in the past. Which comment by the practical nurse (PN) is likely to be most helpful to this client?
“Come into the recreation area. We have your favorite card game and I will play it with you."
"Why do you want to stay in your room today?”
"I know you are sad about not seeing your family as often, but they are visiting as much as they can.”
d “May I sit with you for a while?"
The Correct Answer is D
d. “May I sit with you for a while?"
This comment shows empathy, respect, and support for the client, without being intrusive or judgmental. The PN acknowledges the client's feelings and offers companionship, which can help reduce isolation and loneliness.
The other options are not correct because:
- This comment may be perceived as coercive or dismissive of the client's feelings, as it tries to persuade the client to do something he does not want to do or enjoy.
- This comment may be perceived as accusatory or interrogatory, as it questions the client's decision or motive for staying in his room.
- This comment may be perceived as minimizing or invalidating the client's feelings, as it implies that the client should not be sad or that his family is doing enough for him.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Offering 10% dextrose via nipple feeding is used for infants who are unable to feed orally or with severe hypoglycemia. This neonate is still within range hence dextrose is not incicated at this point.
B. The infant is jittery with a glucose of 40 mg/dL, which indicates mild symptomatic hypoglycemia. Initiating frequent feedings of breast milk or formula is the first action to stabilize glucose while supporting oral intake.
C. Repeating the heel stick is important for monitoring, but it does not treat the low glucose and is not the first action.
D. Assessing for hypocalcemia may be indicated later, but the priority is addressing hypoglycemia through feeding.
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