A client is being treated for chronic kidney disease (CKD). On examination, the client has an elevated blood pressure (BP) and is exhibiting changes in mental status. Which intervention in the plan of care should the practical nurse (PN) implement?
Use a cushion when sitting.
Perform range of motion exercises.
Document abdominal girth.
Weigh every morning.
The Correct Answer is D
This is the best intervention for the PN to implement because it monitors the client's fluid status and helps detect fluid overload, which can cause hypertension and neurological changes. The PN should weigh the client at the same time, on the same scale, and with the same clothing every day.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart atack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.
The other options are not correct because:
- The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.
- The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.
- The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
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