The client is a 32-year-old multigravida at 28 weeks' gestation, who presents to the obstetrician's office for a routine has given burn three times; once at 35 weeks (twins), once at 38 weeks (singleton) and once at 41 weeks (singleton). All of these children are alive and well. She had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks' gestation. Her fourth child weighed 9 pounds (4.08 kg) at 41 weeks gestation.
The client is at 28 weeks. She has been receiving prenatal care since 8 weeks gestation. Her fasting 1-hour glucose screening level, which was done 1 week prior, is 164 mg/dL (9.1 mmol/L). Her 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test results reveal a fasting blood sugar of 168 mg/dL (9.3 mmol and a two-hour postprandial of 220 mg/dL (12...mol/L).
Scheduled the client to meet with the obstetrician, Diabetic Nurse Educator, and a Registered Dietician for the next day. After a discussion about gestational diabetes and seeking the client's input, a suggested plan of care is outlined, which includes dietary control and glucose self-monitoring.
The registered dietician (RD) discusses the need to
Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement(s) by selecting from the lists of options provided.
The diabetic nurse educator instructs the client to perform fingerstick blood glucose (FSBG) monitoring Select Response
of the night at bedtime and in the middle
prior to each meal
every two hours throughout the day
during the middle of the night
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect- While bedtime monitoring is important, the frequency described in this choice is not consistent with FSBG monitoring before meals.
B) Correct- Performing FSBG monitoring before each meal helps the client track her blood glucose levels before consuming food, allowing her to adjust her diet or insulin regimen if necessary.
C) Incorrect- Monitoring every two hours may be excessive and not necessary for managing gestational diabetes.
D) Incorrect- Monitoring during the night is important for glycemic control, but it doesn't specifically address the need to monitor before meals.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
- A bowel pattern is the frequency, consistency, and appearance of a person's bowel movements. A normal bowel pattern is what's normal for each person, and it can vary depending on factors such as diet, age, physical activity, and health conditions.
- A focused gastrointestinal system assessment includes collecting subjective data about the patient's history of gastrointestinal disease, signs and symptoms of gastrointestinal problems, diet and nutrition, and bowel patterns. It also includes inspecting and auscultating the abdomen for any abnormalities.
- When a client reports having a bowel movement three days ago, the first action that the practical nurse should implement is to determine the client's usual bowel pattern. This will help to evaluate if the client is experiencing constipation or if this is their normal frequency. It will also help to identify any changes or risk factors that may affect the client's bowel function.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer, while options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Option A is incorrect because administering a stool softener without assessing the client's bowel pattern may not be appropriate or effective.
Option C is incorrect because encouraging ambulation may help to stimulate bowel activity, but it is not the first action to take.
Option D is incorrect because recommending dietary changes may be helpful for preventing or treating constipation, but it is not the first action to take.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The client may be experiencing postoperative delirium, which is a transient state of confusion, disorientation, agitation, or hallucinations that can occur after surgery, especially in elderly clients. The PN should raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay with the client, as this can provide safety, comfort, and reassurance for the client.
The other options are not correct because:
A. Administering a prescribed narcotic antagonist may not be appropriate or necessary, as the client's agitation may not be caused by analgesic accumulation, but by other factors such as hypoxia, infection, electrolyte imbalance, or sensory deprivation.
B. Notifying the healthcare provider and requesting a prescription for restraints may not be the best intervention, as restraints can increase the client's agitation, anxiety, or injury. Restraints should be used only as a last resort when other measures have failed or when there is an imminent risk of harm.
D. Instructing a UAP to keep the upper side rails up and check on the client every 15 minutes may not be sufficient or effective, as the client may still try to get out of bed or become more agitated by being left alone. The PN should involve the family or stay with the client until he or she is calm and oriented.
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