The client is a 32-year-old multigravida at 28 weeks' gestation, who presents to the obstetrician's office for a routine has given burn three times; once at 35 weeks (twins), once at 38 weeks (singleton) and once at 41 weeks (singleton). All of these children are alive and well. She had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks' gestation. Her fourth child weighed 9 pounds (4.08 kg) at 41 weeks gestation.
The client is at 28 weeks. She has been receiving prenatal care since 8 weeks gestation. Her fasting 1-hour glucose screening level, which was done 1 week prior, is 164 mg/dL (9.1 mmol/L). Her 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test results reveal a fasting blood sugar of 168 mg/dL (9.3 mmol and a two-hour postprandial of 220 mg/dL (12...mol/L).
Scheduled the client to meet with the obstetrician, Diabetic Nurse Educator, and a Registered Dietician for the next day. After a discussion about gestational diabetes and seeking the client's input, a suggested plan of care is outlined, which includes dietary control and glucose self-monitoring.
The registered dietician (RD) discusses the need to
Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement(s) by selecting from the lists of options provided.
The diabetic nurse educator instructs the client to perform fingerstick blood glucose (FSBG) monitoring Select Response
of the night at bedtime and in the middle
prior to each meal
every two hours throughout the day
during the middle of the night
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect- While bedtime monitoring is important, the frequency described in this choice is not consistent with FSBG monitoring before meals.
B) Correct- Performing FSBG monitoring before each meal helps the client track her blood glucose levels before consuming food, allowing her to adjust her diet or insulin regimen if necessary.
C) Incorrect- Monitoring every two hours may be excessive and not necessary for managing gestational diabetes.
D) Incorrect- Monitoring during the night is important for glycemic control, but it doesn't specifically address the need to monitor before meals.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: A double turn or square knot is not recommended because it is not a quick-release knot, which is necessary for patient safety in case of an emergency
Choice B: While restraints need to be secure, they should not be snug against the client's wrists. There should be enough space to fit two fingers between the restraint and the wrist to prevent circulation issues.
Choice C: Ties should not be secured to side rails as this can cause injury if the rails are moved. Instead, they should be attached to the movable part of the bed frame.
Choice D: This is the correct action. A half-bow knot is a type of quick-release knot, which is essential for the safety and quick release of the patient if needed
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct - Flaring of the nares is a sign of increased respiratory effort and can indicate acute respiratory distress.
B) Incorrect - While a resting respiratory rate of 35 breaths/min is elevated for a 4-month-old infant, it may not necessarily indicate acute distress, especially when considered along with other signs.
C) Incorrect - Bilateral bronchial breath sounds may indicate lung pathology, but they are not specific to acute respiratory distress.
D) Incorrect - Diaphragmatic respirations, where the abdomen moves more than the chest during breathing, are normal for infants. They do not necessarily indicate acute respiratory distress.
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