A client who was admitted yesterday with severe dehydration is reporting pain where a 24 gauge intravenous (IV) catheter with normal saline is infusing at a rate of 150 mL/hour. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Establish a second IV site.
Stop the normal saline infusion.
Assess the IV for blood return. D. Discontinue the 24 gauge IV.
Discontinue the 24 gauge IV.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect- While a second IV site might be considered if the first one is causing significant discomfort, it's not the initial intervention. The nurse should first address the immediate concern of pain.
B) Correct- Pain at the IV site during infusion might indicate infiltration or irritation. Stopping the infusion is the most immediate intervention to prevent further discomfort and potential complications like tissue damage.
C) Incorrect- While assessing for blood return is important to ensure proper IV placement, it's not the initial intervention for managing pain caused by the infusion.
D) Incorrect- Discontinuing the IV might be considered if the pain is severe and unmanageable, but the nurse should initially try to address the discomfort without removing the IV.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect - Requesting the client to lie still may be relevant for certain assessments, but it is not specific to the situation described in the question.
B) Incorrect - Inquiring about episodes of sundowning is more relevant for clients with cognitive impairment and is not directly related to the client's weight loss and decreased energy and appetite.
C) Correct - Questioning the client about the frequency of falls is important, as falls can contribute to weight loss, decreased energy, and appetite changes in older adults.
D) Incorrect - Assisting the client with clarifying values about end-of-life care is a valuable nursing intervention but is not the priority in this assessment scenario.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.
B) Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C) Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D) Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.
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