A client is receiving mesalamine 800 mg by mouth three times a day. Which assessment should the nurse perform to assess the effectiveness of the medication?
Pupillary response.
Peripheral pulses.
Bowel patterns.
Oxygen saturation.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect- Pupillary response is not relevant to the assessment of mesalamine's effectiveness.
Pupillary response is often assessed in neurological or ophthalmic evaluations and is not a direct measure of gastrointestinal function or the response to mesalamine therapy.
B) Incorrect- Peripheral pulses are not directly affected by mesalamine therapy, and monitoring them would not provide insight into the medication's effectiveness. Peripheral pulses are typically assessed to evaluate circulatory status and are not specific to the evaluation of gastrointestinal conditions.
C) Correct- Mesalamine is a medication commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), such as Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis. It helps to reduce inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring bowel patterns is important to assess the effectiveness of mesalamine in managing the symptoms of these conditions.
D) Incorrect- Oxygen saturation is a measure of the amount of oxygen in the blood and is used to assess respiratory function. While oxygen saturation is important for overall patient assessment, it is not directly related to mesalamine's effectiveness in treating inflammatory bowel disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
- Urinary output is an important indicator of fluid balance and kidney function. After delivery, a woman may experience increased urinary output due to the loss of excess fluid that was retained during pregnancy and the diuretic effect of oxytocin, which is released during breastfeeding. This is a normal and expected finding in the postpartum period.
- However, increased urinary output may also be a sign of urinary retention, which is the inability to empty the bladder completely. Urinary retention can occur due to trauma to the bladder or urethra during delivery, swelling or hematoma of the perineum, epidural anesthesia, or decreased bladder sensation. Urinary retention can lead to complications such as infection, bladder distension, or postpartum hemorrhage.
- Therefore, when a woman who delivered a normal newborn 24 hours ago reports that she seems to be urinating every hour or so, the practical nurse (PN) should measure the next voiding, and then palpate the client's bladder. This will help to assess the amount and quality of urine and the presence or absence of bladder distension. A normal urine output is about 30 ml per hour, and a normal bladder should feel soft and empty after voiding. If the urine output is low or high, or if the bladder feels firm or full after voiding, the PN should report these findings to the primary healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer, while options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Option A is incorrect because catheterizing the client for residual urine volume is an invasive procedure that should only be done if indicated by the primary healthcare provider.
Option C is incorrect because evaluating for normal involution and massaging the fundus are related to uterine function, not urinary function.
Option D is incorrect because obtaining a specimen for urine culture and sensitivity is not necessary unless there are signs of infection, such as fever, dysuria, or foul-smelling urine.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
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