The practical nurse (PN) is completing a focused assessment on a client who is prescribed oxygen at 3 liters per minute by nasal cannula. Which assessment finding by the PN requires immediate action?

A) Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.

B) Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C) Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D) Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.

A) Incorrect- While monitoring urinary output is important for overall assessment, it is not the most critical intervention in this situation of suspected stroke. The client's neurological symptoms take precedence.
B) Incorrect- Positioning might be relevant to preventing complications, but it is not the highest priority intervention in this situation. The focus should be on assessing the client's neurological status and determining appropriate intervention.
C) Incorrect- Although head positioning is relevant for intracranial pressure management, it is not the immediate priority. The nurse should first assess the time of symptom onset and determine if the client is experiencing an acute stroke.
D) Correct- The client's symptoms, including sudden severe headache, facial numbness, facial droop, and weakness on one side, are suggestive of a stroke. The nurse should prioritize assessing the time of symptom onset, as time is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate intervention. Rapid intervention can improve outcomes in stroke cases, especially when considering interventions like thrombolytic therapy. The other options are not as directly relevant to the immediate management of a suspected stroke.