A client is receiving IV heparin and oral warfarin after a pulmonary embolism (PE). The nurse determines the client's activated partial prothromboplastin time (APTT) value is two times the control value; the prothrombin time (PT) level is the same as the control, and the international normalized ratio (INR) is 1. Which protocol prescription should the nurse implement?
Reference Range:
Activated Partial Prothromboplastin Time (APTT) [Anticoagulant therapy: 1.5 to 2 times the control value in seconds.] Prothromboplastin Time (PT) [Anticoagulant therapy: greater than 1.5 to 2 times the control value.] International Normalized Ratio (INR) [0.8 to 1.1]
Increase the warfarin dose.
Withhold the heparin and continue the same dose of warfarin.
Decrease the heparin dose.
D Increase the heparin dose and decrease the warfarin dose.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Demonstrate how to administer medication via a feeding tube.The picture shows that the newly hired PN is about to make a serious error by adding the medication directly to the feeding bag, which can cause clogging, contamination, or inaccurate dosing of the medication. The PN should demonstrate how to administer medication via a feeding tube correctly, which involves stopping the feeding, flushing the tube with water, instilling the medication, flushing again, and resuming the feeding.
The other options are not correct because:
- Confirming that the medication is only administered once daily is not relevant or helpful, as it does not address the error or teach the correct technique of administering medication via a feeding tube.Determining if the medication is compatible with the solution is not necessary or appropriate, as the medication should not be mixed with the solution in the first place, but given separately through the feeding tube.
- Offering to assist in calculating the rate of flow for the mixture is not relevant or helpful, as there should be no mixture of medication and solution in the feeding bag, but separate administration of each through the feeding tube.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Pupillary response is not relevant to the assessment of mesalamine's effectiveness.
Pupillary response is often assessed in neurological or ophthalmic evaluations and is not a direct measure of gastrointestinal function or the response to mesalamine therapy.
B) Incorrect- Peripheral pulses are not directly affected by mesalamine therapy, and monitoring them would not provide insight into the medication's effectiveness. Peripheral pulses are
typically assessed to evaluate the circulatory status and are not specific to the evaluation of gastrointestinal conditions.
C) Correct- Mesalamine is a medication commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), such as Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis. It helps to reduce inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring bowel patterns is important to assess the effectiveness of mesalamine in managing the symptoms of these conditions.
D) Incorrect- Oxygen saturation is a measure of the amount of oxygen in the blood and is used to assess respiratory function. While oxygen saturation is important for overall patient assessment, it is not directly related to mesalamine's effectiveness in treating inflammatory bowel disease.
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