A client is receiving IV heparin and oral warfarin after a pulmonary embolism (PE). The nurse determines the client's activated partial prothromboplastin time (APTT) value is two times the control value; the prothrombin time (PT) level is the same as the control, and the international normalized ratio (INR) is 1. Which protocol prescription should the nurse implement?

Reference Range:

Activated Partial Prothromboplastin Time (APTT) [Anticoagulant therapy: 1.5 to 2 times the control value in seconds.] Prothromboplastin Time (PT) [Anticoagulant therapy: greater than 1.5 to 2 times the control value.] International Normalized Ratio (INR) [0.8 to 1.1]

Increase the warfarin dose.

Withhold the heparin and continue the same dose of warfarin.

Decrease the heparin dose.

D Increase the heparin dose and decrease the warfarin dose.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A)   Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B)   Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C)   Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D)   Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Obtain emergency help. - This is the most urgent action as the client is unresponsive, and getting emergency assistance is crucial to providing immediate care.
B. Feel for a carotid pulse. - While assessing the pulse is important, if the client is unresponsive, the first step is to get emergency assistance.
C. Bring a glucometer to the room. - This action might be relevant for assessing specific conditions, but in this scenario, the priority is to seek immediate emergency assistance.
D. Check the blood pressure. - Assessing blood pressure is important, but in the case of an unresponsive client, seeking emergency help takes precedence for immediate assistance and care.

A. Administer a prescribed narcotic antagonist to reverse the eﬀects of any analgesic accumulation B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for restraints to minimize the client's danger to self. C. Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative D. Instruct a UAP to keep the upper side rails up and check on the client every 15 minutes until the client is resting.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative. This intervention ensures the client’s safety and provides familiar support, which can help reorient and calm the client.

Choice A reason: Administering a prescribed narcotic antagonist assumes the agitation is due to narcotic accumulation without evidence. This could lead to unnecessary medication administration.

Choice B reason: Requesting restraints should be a last resort due to the risks of injury and increased agitation. Restraints can also lead to further complications.

Choice C reason: Raising the side rails and involving the family provides immediate safety and emotional support, which can help reorient the client. Familiar faces can be very calming and reassuring.

Choice D reason: Instructing a UAP to check on the client every 15 minutes lacks the immediate family support that can help reorient the client. Continuous monitoring is important, but family involvement is more effective.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The practical nurse (PN) and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) enter a client's room and find the client lying on the bed. The PN determines that the client is unresponsive. Which instruction should the PN give the UAP first?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

An elderly client is 12-hours postoperative for a hernia repair and suddenly becomes agitated, staggers out into the corridor, and demands to be set free. After assisting the client back to bed and administering pain medication, which intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Immediately after log-rolling a client to a lateral position, which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement?

The practical nurse (PN) is observing a newly hired PN who is preparing to administer a liquid medication via a client's feeding tube system as seen in the picture. What action should the PN take?

A client is being treated for chronic kidney disease (CKD). On examination, the client has an elevated blood pressure (BP) and is exhibiting changes in mental status. Which intervention in the plan of care should the practical nurse (PN) implement?

While receiving report for a client with carcinoma in situ of the left breast, the practical nurse (PN) reviews a pending lab report and notices increased levels of Anti-Glycan Neu5Gc Antibodies (AGNA). Which changes should the PN anticipate to be included in the client's plan of care?

Prior to an invasive examination of a hospitalized client, a consent form should be obtained. Which action best describes the responsibility of the practical nurse (PN)?

An adolescent who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?