A client is receiving IV heparin and oral warfarin after a pulmonary embolism (PE). The nurse determines the client's activated partial prothromboplastin time (APTT) value is two times the control value; the prothrombin time (PT) level is the same as the control, and the international normalized ratio (INR) is 1. Which protocol prescription should the nurse implement?
Reference Range:
Activated Partial Prothromboplastin Time (APTT) [Anticoagulant therapy: 1.5 to 2 times the control value in seconds.] Prothromboplastin Time (PT) [Anticoagulant therapy: greater than 1.5 to 2 times the control value.] International Normalized Ratio (INR) [0.8 to 1.1]
Increase the warfarin dose.
Withhold the heparin and continue the same dose of warfarin.
Decrease the heparin dose.
D Increase the heparin dose and decrease the warfarin dose.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A: A double turn or square knot is not recommended because it is not a quick-release knot, which is necessary for patient safety in case of an emergency
Choice B: While restraints need to be secure, they should not be snug against the client's wrists. There should be enough space to fit two fingers between the restraint and the wrist to prevent circulation issues.
Choice C: Ties should not be secured to side rails as this can cause injury if the rails are moved. Instead, they should be attached to the movable part of the bed frame.
Choice D: This is the correct action. A half-bow knot is a type of quick-release knot, which is essential for the safety and quick release of the patient if needed
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Correct- Electrolyte imbalances, particularly involving electrolytes like potassium, can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Elevated blood pressure can strain the cardiovascular system, and mental status changes could indicate potential neurologic and cardiovascular involvement. Auscultating for an irregular heart rate helps identify any immediate cardiac issues that require intervention.
B) Incorrect- While monitoring sodium intake is important for clients with chronic kidney disease, it is not the most urgent action in this scenario. The presence of electrolyte imbalance, elevated blood pressure, and changes in mental status indicate a more acute concern that requires immediate assessment.
C) Incorrect- Documenting abdominal girth is relevant for assessing fluid status, but in this situation, the presence of electrolyte imbalance, elevated blood pressure, and mental status changes indicates a more critical issue that requires prompt intervention.
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