A client is receiving IV heparin and oral warfarin after a pulmonary embolism (PE). The nurse determines the client's activated partial prothromboplastin time (APTT) value is two times the control value; the prothrombin time (PT) level is the same as the control, and the international normalized ratio (INR) is 1. Which protocol prescription should the nurse implement?
Reference Range:
Activated Partial Prothromboplastin Time (APTT) [Anticoagulant therapy: 1.5 to 2 times the control value in seconds.] Prothromboplastin Time (PT) [Anticoagulant therapy: greater than 1.5 to 2 times the control value.] International Normalized Ratio (INR) [0.8 to 1.1]
Increase the warfarin dose.
Withhold the heparin and continue the same dose of warfarin.
Decrease the heparin dose.
D Increase the heparin dose and decrease the warfarin dose.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Explaining the procedure and obtaining the signature is the provider’s responsibility, not the practical nurse’s.
B. Checking the medical record for a signed consent form is part of the practical nurse’s verification role but does not address assessing client understanding.
C. Obtaining consent from a family member is only appropriate if the client is unable to provide it; otherwise, consent must come directly from the client.
D. The practical nurse is responsible for ensuring the client understands the procedure and the purpose of the consent form, reinforcing the provider’s explanation and promoting informed consent.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- an audible voice when client is trying to communicate, indicates that the client has some air passing through the vocal cords, which may be due to a partially deflated cuff or a speaking valve. This is not a life-threatening situation, but the nurse should ensure that the cuff pressure is adequate and that the client is not experiencing any discomfort or aspiration risk.
B) Incorrect- This may indicate atelectasis, pneumonia, or pleural effusion in that lung area. The nurse should auscultate the client's lungs more thoroughly, monitor the client's oxygenation and ventilation parameters, and report the findings to the provider.
C) Correct- This finding suggests that the client may have a ventilator disconnect, a leak in the circuit, or a cuff leak, which can compromise the client's oxygenation and ventilation. The nurse should immediately check the ventilator connections and tubing, and assess the client's vital signs and oxygen saturation.
D) Incorrect- high-pressure alarm sounds when the client is coughing, which is a common occurrence in mechanically ventilated clients who have increased airway resistance due to secretions, bronchospasm, or coughing. The nurse should suction the client as needed, administer bronchodilators if prescribed, and ensure that the ventilator settings are appropriate for the client's condition.
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