A client is receiving IV heparin and oral warfarin after a pulmonary embolism (PE). The nurse determines the client's activated partial prothromboplastin time (APTT) value is two times the control value; the prothrombin time (PT) level is the same as the control, and the international normalized ratio (INR) is 1. Which protocol prescription should the nurse implement?
Reference Range:
Activated Partial Prothromboplastin Time (APTT) [Anticoagulant therapy: 1.5 to 2 times the control value in seconds.] Prothromboplastin Time (PT) [Anticoagulant therapy: greater than 1.5 to 2 times the control value.] International Normalized Ratio (INR) [0.8 to 1.1]
Increase the warfarin dose.
Withhold the heparin and continue the same dose of warfarin.
Decrease the heparin dose.
D Increase the heparin dose and decrease the warfarin dose.
The Correct Answer is B
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is the first action that the PN should take because the catheter size and balloon volume are inappropriate for the client. A #18 urinary catheter is too large for a female client who weighs 50 kg, and a 30 mL balloon may cause bladder trauma or discomfort. The PN should consult with the charge nurse and obtain a smaller catheter (such as #14 or #16) with a 10 mL balloon.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- While the history of vomiting is important to assess, it may not be the most crucial information to gather at this point, as the client is postoperative and the focus is on immediate postoperative care.
B) Incorrect- While assessing for fluid intake is important, the client's refusal of ice chips is not an urgent concern compared to other potential complications, such as pain management, oxygenation, and fluid balance.
C) Incorrect- These assessments are important, but the client's history of right hemicolectomy and the current infusion and medication administration require closer attention to fluid balance, pain control, and oxygenation.
D) Correct- While all options are important to consider, the most critical information in this scenario is assessing peripheral pulses and the range of motion of both legs. A right hemicolectomy involves abdominal surgery and decreased or absent peripheral pulses along with a limited range of motion could indicate impaired circulation, thrombosis, or other post-operative complications. These findings might necessitate prompt intervention to prevent potential complications.
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