After completing post anesthesia recovery assessments, the registered nurse (RN) asks the practical nurse (PN) to transfer four clients, each two hours post-birth, to the postpartum unit. Which client should the PN ask the RN to reassess prior to transfer?

A primigravida whose perineal pain has worsened one hour after being medicated.

A multigravida whose peri-pad is 1/4 saturated with lochia rubra after one hour.

A multigravida complaining of strong afterbirth pains when breastfeeding.

A primigravida who passed a small clot when she sat up on the edge of the bed.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

This client should be reassessed by the RN prior to transfer, as worsening perineal pain may indicate a hematoma, infection, or inadequate pain management. The RN should inspect the perineum, check the vital signs, and evaluate the eﬀectiveness of the medication.

The other options are not correct because:

B. A multigravida whose peri-pad is 1/4 saturated with lochia rubra after one hour does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Lochia rubra is a red-colored vaginal discharge that contains blood and debris from the placental site, and it usually lasts for 3 to 4 days after delivery. A peri-pad that is 1/4 saturated after one hour is within the expected range of blood loss.

C. A multigravida complaining of strong afterbirth pains when breastfeeding does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Afterbirth pains are cramps caused by uterine contractions that help shrink the uterus and prevent bleeding. They are more common and intense in multiparous women and during breastfeeding, as oxytocin is released and stimulates contractions.

D. A primigravida who passed a small clot when she sat up on the edge of the bed does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Small clots may form in the uterus or vagina due to pooling of blood during rest or anesthesia, and they are usually expelled when changing position or ambulating. As long as the clot is smaller than a plum and there is no excessive bleeding or pain, it is not a cause for concern.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

This is the best initial intervention for the PN to implement because it promotes comfort, relaxation, and circulation for the client. A back rub can also reduce anxiety and muscle tension, which can interfere with sleep. The PN should use non-pharmacological methods to facilitate sleep before resorting to medication.

A. History of vomiting at home for 3 days prior to surgery. B. Declining to take ice chips for complaints of dry mouth. C. Soft abdomen, absent bowel sounds, no bleeding on dressing. D. Peripheral pulses present with full range of motion of both legs.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Incorrect- While the history of vomiting is important to assess, it may not be the most crucial information to gather at this point, as the client is postoperative and the focus is on immediate postoperative care.
B) Incorrect- While assessing for fluid intake is important, the client's refusal of ice chips is not an urgent concern compared to other potential complications, such as pain management, oxygenation, and fluid balance.
C) Incorrect- These assessments are important, but the client's history of right hemicolectomy and the current infusion and medication administration require closer attention to fluid balance, pain control, and oxygenation.
D) Correct- While all options are important to consider, the most critical information in this scenario is assessing peripheral pulses and the range of motion of both legs. A right hemicolectomy involves abdominal surgery and decreased or absent peripheral pulses along with a limited range of motion could indicate impaired circulation, thrombosis, or other post-operative complications. These findings might necessitate prompt intervention to prevent potential complications.

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After completing post anesthesia recovery assessments, the registered nurse (RN) asks the practical nurse (PN) to transfer four clients, each two hours post-birth, to the postpartum unit. Which client should the PN ask the RN to reassess prior to transfer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client who had orthopedic surgery three days ago verbalizes difficulty in sleeping. Which initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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