After completing post anesthesia recovery assessments, the registered nurse (RN) asks the practical nurse (PN) to transfer four clients, each two hours post-birth, to the postpartum unit. Which client should the PN ask the RN to reassess prior to transfer?

A primigravida whose perineal pain has worsened one hour after being medicated.

A multigravida whose peri-pad is 1/4 saturated with lochia rubra after one hour.

A multigravida complaining of strong afterbirth pains when breastfeeding.

A primigravida who passed a small clot when she sat up on the edge of the bed.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

This client should be reassessed by the RN prior to transfer, as worsening perineal pain may indicate a hematoma, infection, or inadequate pain management. The RN should inspect the perineum, check the vital signs, and evaluate the eﬀectiveness of the medication.

The other options are not correct because:

B. A multigravida whose peri-pad is 1/4 saturated with lochia rubra after one hour does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Lochia rubra is a red-colored vaginal discharge that contains blood and debris from the placental site, and it usually lasts for 3 to 4 days after delivery. A peri-pad that is 1/4 saturated after one hour is within the expected range of blood loss.

C. A multigravida complaining of strong afterbirth pains when breastfeeding does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Afterbirth pains are cramps caused by uterine contractions that help shrink the uterus and prevent bleeding. They are more common and intense in multiparous women and during breastfeeding, as oxytocin is released and stimulates contractions.

D. A primigravida who passed a small clot when she sat up on the edge of the bed does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Small clots may form in the uterus or vagina due to pooling of blood during rest or anesthesia, and they are usually expelled when changing position or ambulating. As long as the clot is smaller than a plum and there is no excessive bleeding or pain, it is not a cause for concern.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

b. Begin frequent feedings of breast milk or formula.

The infant has hypoglycemia, which is a low blood glucose level that can cause jiteriness, lethargy, seizures, or coma. Hypoglycemia is common in infants of mothers with gestational diabetes, as they produce excess insulin in response to high maternal glucose levels. The PN should begin frequent feedings of breast milk or formula, as this can provide a source of glucose and stimulate the infant's own glucose production.

The other options are not correct because:

a. Oﬀering nipple feedings of 10% dextrose may be indicated in some cases of severe hypoglycemia, but it is not the first intervention. The PN should try oral feedings of breast milk or formula first, as they are more natural and less invasive.

c. Repeating the heel stick for glucose in one hour may be necessary to monitor the infant's glucose level, but it is not the first intervention. The PN should treat the hypoglycemia first, as it can have serious consequences if left untreated.

d. Assessing for signs of hypocalcemia may be important, as hypocalcemia is another possible complication in infants of mothers with gestational diabetes, but it is not the first intervention. The PN should address the hypoglycemia first, as it is more urgent and more likely to cause jiteriness.

A. Administer a prescribed narcotic antagonist to reverse the eﬀects of any analgesic accumulation. B. Notify the healthcare provider and request a prescription for restraints to minimize the client's danger to self. C. Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative. D. Instruct a UAP to keep the upper side rails up and check on the client every 15 minutes until the client is resting.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The client may be experiencing postoperative delirium, which is a transient state of confusion, disorientation, agitation, or hallucinations that can occur after surgery, especially in elderly clients. The PN should raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay with the client, as this can provide safety, comfort, and reassurance for the client.

The other options are not correct because:

A. Administering a prescribed narcotic antagonist may not be appropriate or necessary, as the client's agitation may not be caused by analgesic accumulation, but by other factors such as hypoxia, infection, electrolyte imbalance, or sensory deprivation.

B. Notifying the healthcare provider and requesting a prescription for restraints may not be the best intervention, as restraints can increase the client's agitation, anxiety, or injury. Restraints should be used only as a last resort when other measures have failed or when there is an imminent risk of harm.

D. Instructing a UAP to keep the upper side rails up and check on the client every 15 minutes may not be sufficient or eﬀective, as the client may still try to get out of bed or become more agitated by being left alone. The PN should involve the family or stay with the client until he or she is calm and oriented.

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After completing post anesthesia recovery assessments, the registered nurse (RN) asks the practical nurse (PN) to transfer four clients, each two hours post-birth, to the postpartum unit. Which client should the PN ask the RN to reassess prior to transfer?

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

An elderly client is 12-hours postoperative for a hernia repair and suddenly becomes agitated, staggers out into the corridor, and demands to be set free. After assisting the client back to bed and administering pain medication, which intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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