After completing post anesthesia recovery assessments, the registered nurse (RN) asks the practical nurse (PN) to transfer four clients, each two hours post-birth, to the postpartum unit. Which client should the PN ask the RN to reassess prior to transfer?

A primigravida whose perineal pain has worsened one hour after being medicated.

A multigravida whose peri-pad is 1/4 saturated with lochia rubra after one hour.

A multigravida complaining of strong afterbirth pains when breastfeeding.

A primigravida who passed a small clot when she sat up on the edge of the bed.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

This client should be reassessed by the RN prior to transfer, as worsening perineal pain may indicate a hematoma, infection, or inadequate pain management. The RN should inspect the perineum, check the vital signs, and evaluate the eﬀectiveness of the medication.

The other options are not correct because:

B. A multigravida whose peri-pad is 1/4 saturated with lochia rubra after one hour does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Lochia rubra is a red-colored vaginal discharge that contains blood and debris from the placental site, and it usually lasts for 3 to 4 days after delivery. A peri-pad that is 1/4 saturated after one hour is within the expected range of blood loss.

C. A multigravida complaining of strong afterbirth pains when breastfeeding does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Afterbirth pains are cramps caused by uterine contractions that help shrink the uterus and prevent bleeding. They are more common and intense in multiparous women and during breastfeeding, as oxytocin is released and stimulates contractions.

D. A primigravida who passed a small clot when she sat up on the edge of the bed does not need to be reassessed by the RN, as this is a normal finding for a client two hours post-birth. Small clots may form in the uterus or vagina due to pooling of blood during rest or anesthesia, and they are usually expelled when changing position or ambulating. As long as the clot is smaller than a plum and there is no excessive bleeding or pain, it is not a cause for concern.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Incorrect- While a second IV site might be considered if the first one is causing significant discomfort, it's not the initial intervention. The nurse should first address the immediate concern of pain.
B) Correct- Pain at the IV site during infusion might indicate infiltration or irritation. Stopping the infusion is the most immediate intervention to prevent further discomfort and potential complications like tissue damage.
C) Incorrect- While assessing for blood return is important to ensure proper IV placement, it's not the initial intervention for managing pain caused by the infusion.
D) Incorrect- Discontinuing the IV might be considered if the pain is severe and unmanageable, but the nurse should initially try to address the discomfort without removing the IV.

A. Clear beef broth. B. Vegetable juice. C. Canned fruit cocktail. D. Vanilla frozen yogurt. E. Creamy peanut butter.

Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

A) Correct - Clear beef broth is appropriate for a postoperative full-liquid diet, as it is a clear liquid and meets the dietary restrictions.
B) Correct - Vegetable juice can be included in a postoperative full liquid diet, as long as it is free of solid particles.
C) Incorrect - Canned fruit cocktails may contain solid pieces of fruit, which are not suitable for a full-liquid diet.
D) Correct - Vanilla frozen yogurt is a suitable option for a postoperative full-liquid diet, as it is in a liquid state when consumed.
E) Incorrect - Creamy peanut butter is not appropriate for a full-liquid diet, as it is a solid food and does not meet the diet's requirements.

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After completing post anesthesia recovery assessments, the registered nurse (RN) asks the practical nurse (PN) to transfer four clients, each two hours post-birth, to the postpartum unit. Which client should the PN ask the RN to reassess prior to transfer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client who was admitted yesterday with severe dehydration is reporting pain where a 24 gauge intravenous (IV) catheter with normal saline is infusing at a rate of 150 mL/hour. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]

Explanation

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