The practical nurse (PN) is caring for an older client who is receiving chemotherapy for lung cancer. Which finding is the highest priority for the PN to report to the charge nurse?
Reference ranges:
- Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): [Adult: 10 to 20 mg/dL or 3.6 to 7.1 mmol/L]
- Platelets: [150,000 to 400,000/mm3 or 150 to 400 x 10^9/L]
Periodic nausea and vomiting
Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Platelet count 135,000/mm3 or 135 x 10^9/L
Blood urea nitrogen 75 mg/dL or 12.9 mmol/L
The Correct Answer is D
A high blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level indicates impaired renal function, which can be caused by dehydration, infection, or nephrotoxic drugs. Chemotherapy can damage the kidneys and increase the risk of renal failure. The PN should report this finding to the charge nurse, as it may require fluid replacement, dose adjustment, or discontinuation of the chemotherapy.
The other options are not correct because:
- Periodic nausea and vomiting are common side effects of chemotherapy that can be managed with antiemetics, hydration, and dietary modifications. They are not as urgent as a high BUN level.
- Decreased deep tendon reflexes may indicate hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, or peripheral neuropathy, which can be caused by chemotherapy or other factors. They are not as urgent as a high BUN level.
- A platelet count of 135,000/mm3 or 135 x 10^9/L is slightly below the normal range, but not significantly low. Chemotherapy can cause thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. The PN should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, but this finding is not as urgent as a high BUN level.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- While the history of vomiting is important to assess, it may not be the most crucial information to gather at this point, as the client is postoperative and the focus is on immediate postoperative care.
B) Incorrect- While assessing for fluid intake is important, the client's refusal of ice chips is not an urgent concern compared to other potential complications, such as pain management, oxygenation, and fluid balance.
C) Incorrect- These assessments are important, but the client's history of right hemicolectomy and the current infusion and medication administration require closer attention to fluid balance, pain control, and oxygenation.
D) Correct- While all options are important to consider, the most critical information in this scenario is assessing peripheral pulses and the range of motion of both legs. A right hemicolectomy involves abdominal surgery and decreased or absent peripheral pulses along with a limited range of motion could indicate impaired circulation, thrombosis, or other post-operative complications. These findings might necessitate prompt intervention to prevent potential complications.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
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