The nurse is caring for a client who reports a sudden, severe headache, and facial numbness.The nurse asks the client to smile and observes an uneven smile with a facial droop to the right side and a hand grasp strength that is weaker on the right than the left. The client denies a recent history of headaches or trauma. After obtaining vital signs, the nurse should implement which intervention?
Place an indwelling urinary catheter and measure strict intake and output.
Maintain elevated positioning of the dependent joints on affected side.
Raise the head of the bed to 30 degrees keep head and neck in neutral alignment.
Determine when symptoms began and if improved or worsened since onset.
The Correct Answer is D
A) Incorrect- While monitoring urinary output is important for overall assessment, it is not the most critical intervention in this situation of suspected stroke. The client's neurological symptoms take precedence.
B) Incorrect- Positioning might be relevant to preventing complications, but it is not the highest priority intervention in this situation. The focus should be on assessing the client's neurological status and determining appropriate intervention.
C) Incorrect- Although head positioning is relevant for intracranial pressure management, it is not the immediate priority. The nurse should first assess the time of symptom onset and determine if the client is experiencing an acute stroke.
D) Correct- The client's symptoms, including sudden severe headache, facial numbness, facial droop, and weakness on one side, are suggestive of a stroke. The nurse should prioritize assessing the time of symptom onset, as time is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate intervention. Rapid intervention can improve outcomes in stroke cases, especially when considering interventions like thrombolytic therapy. The other options are not as directly relevant to the immediate management of a suspected stroke.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["2"]
Explanation
Rationale: The nurse should calculate the dose based on the concentration of the medication. Since the suspension contains 500 mg of acetaminophen per 15 mL, a 1,000 mg dose requires 30 mL (2 tablespoons) of the suspension.
Correct Answer is A,B,C,D
Explanation
This client has the highest priority, as he or she may be experiencing an acute asthma attack that can compromise the airway and oxygenation. The PN should assess the client's respiratory status, administer bronchodilators, and monitor for improvement or deterioration.
B. A 7-year-old child who has type 1 diabetes mellitus and is experiencing extreme hunger and shakiness.
This client has the second highest priority, as he or she may be experiencing hypoglycemia, which is a low blood glucose level that can cause neurologic symptoms such as confusion, seizures, or coma. The PN should check the client's blood glucose level, provide a source of glucose, and monitor for recovery or complications.
C. A 10-year-old child with bleeding lacerations on both knees after falling on the playground.
This client has the third highest priority, as he or she may have a risk of infection or blood loss from the wounds. The PN should clean and dress the lacerations, apply pressure if needed, and check for signs of infection or inflammation.
D. A 5-year-old child who is crying uncontrollably because of an incontinent bowel episode.
This client has the lowest priority, as he or she does not have a life-threatening or urgent condition, but a psychosocial or emotional issue. The PN should provide comfort and reassurance to the child, change his or her clothes, and explore the possible causes of the incontinence.
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