The birth weight of an infant delivered by a woman with gestational diabetes is 10.1 pounds (4,581 grams). The infant is jitery and has a heel stick glucose level of 40 mg/dL (2.2 mmol/L) 30 minutes after birth. Based on this information, which intervention should the practical nurse (PN) implement first?

Reference range:

Blood glucose neonate: [30 to 60 mg/dL or 1.7 to 3.3 mmol/L]

Oﬀer nipple feedings of 10% dextrose.

Begin frequent feedings of breast milk or formula

Repeat the heel stick for glucose in one hour

Assess for signs of hypocalcemia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

b. Begin frequent feedings of breast milk or formula.

The infant has hypoglycemia, which is a low blood glucose level that can cause jiteriness, lethargy, seizures, or coma. Hypoglycemia is common in infants of mothers with gestational diabetes, as they produce excess insulin in response to high maternal glucose levels. The PN should begin frequent feedings of breast milk or formula, as this can provide a source of glucose and stimulate the infant's own glucose production.

The other options are not correct because:

a. Oﬀering nipple feedings of 10% dextrose may be indicated in some cases of severe hypoglycemia, but it is not the first intervention. The PN should try oral feedings of breast milk or formula first, as they are more natural and less invasive.

c. Repeating the heel stick for glucose in one hour may be necessary to monitor the infant's glucose level, but it is not the first intervention. The PN should treat the hypoglycemia first, as it can have serious consequences if left untreated.

d. Assessing for signs of hypocalcemia may be important, as hypocalcemia is another possible complication in infants of mothers with gestational diabetes, but it is not the first intervention. The PN should address the hypoglycemia first, as it is more urgent and more likely to cause jiteriness.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Incorrect- This response might address the client's concern but doesn't directly address her dichotomous thinking or provide immediate therapeutic communication.
B) Incorrect- While showing happiness for the client's improvement is positive, this response does not address the client's behavior or engage with her dichotomous tendency.
C) Incorrect- This response acknowledges the client's liking but doesn't address the dichotomous thinking pattern or provide an effective therapeutic response.
D) Correct- answering this question encourages the client to express her concerns and perceptions, fostering communication. This approach acknowledges the client's feelings and provides an opportunity for her to discuss the issue, potentially leading to a productive conversation.

A. Periodic nausea and vomiting B. Decreased deep tendon reﬂexes C. Platelet count 135,000/mm3 or 135 x 10^9/L D. Blood urea nitrogen 75 mg/dL or 12.9 mmol/L

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A high blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level indicates impaired renal function, which can be caused by dehydration, infection, or nephrotoxic drugs. Chemotherapy can damage the kidneys and increase the risk of renal failure. The PN should report this finding to the charge nurse, as it may require ﬂuid replacement, dose adjustment, or discontinuation of the chemotherapy.

The other options are not correct because:

Periodic nausea and vomiting are common side eﬀects of chemotherapy that can be managed with antiemetics, hydration, and dietary modifications. They are not as urgent as a high BUN level.
Decreased deep tendon reﬂexes may indicate hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, or peripheral neuropathy, which can be caused by chemotherapy or other factors. They are not as urgent as a high BUN level.
A platelet count of 135,000/mm3 or 135 x 10^9/L is slightly below the normal range, but not significantly low. Chemotherapy can cause thrombocytopenia, which increases the risk of bleeding. The PN should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, but this finding is not as urgent as a high BUN level.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client receives a prescription for acetaminophen 1,000 mg by mouth every 8 hours as needed for pain. The bottle is labeled "Acetaminophen for Oral Suspension, USP 500 mg per 15 mL." How many tablespoons should the nurse instruct the client to take with each dose? (Enter numerical value only.)

Prior to an invasive examination of a hospitalized client, a consent form should be obtained. Which action best describes the responsibility of the practical nurse (PN)?

A client is receiving mesalamine 800 mg by mouth three times a day. Which assessment should the nurse perform to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

Find patient data about a client below. After the nurse assesses the client, the physician writes orders. The nurse reviews the orders. Which 2 orders should the nurse complete first?

When performing a focused gastrointestinal system assessment, the practical nurse (PN) asks a male client when his last bowel movement occurred. The client answers, "Three days ago." Which action should the PN implement first?

A 4-month-old infant is brought to the clinic by a parent with symptoms of a runny nose, a slight fever, and cough for the last two days Which finding should alert the nurse that the child is in acute respiratory distress?

When conducting diet teaching for a client who is on a postoperative full-liquid diet, which food(s) should the nurse encourage the client to eat? (Select all that apply.)