The practical nurse (PN) is caring for a client with coronary artery disease who is admitted with intermittent chest pain. The admission laboratory results indicate elevations in troponin I and creatine phosphokinase myoglobin isoenzyme (CK-MB) levels.
What should the PN consider the most significant risk for this client on the second day of admission?
The lab results indicate myocardial damage, and the client is at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias
The client is at risk for pulmonary embolism, and lifestyle modifications need to be implemented.
The client is at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain and subsequent myocardial infarction (MI).
The lab results indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), and neurological vital signs should be monitored.
The Correct Answer is A
Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suffered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart atack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.
The other options are not correct because:
- The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.
- The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.
- The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood flow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- An 18-year-old client with a mild mental disability is a client who has a lower than average intellectual functioning and some limitations in adaptive skills, such as communication, socialization, and self-care. A mild mental disability may affect the client's ability to understand, cope, or cooperate with medical interventions, such as ambulation after surgery.
- Ambulation is the act of walking or moving around. It is an important part of postoperative care, as it helps to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, atelectasis, constipation, and pressure ulcers. Ambulation also promotes circulation, wound healing, and muscle strength.
- When the practical nurse (PN) attempts to assist the client to ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy, the client becomes angry and says, "PN, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!" This may indicate that the client is experiencing pain, fear, anxiety, or frustration due to the surgery and the recovery process.
- The best response for the PN to make is to acknowledge the client's feelings, provide reassurance and support, and set a clear and realistic goal for ambulation. This will help to establish rapport, reduce resistance, and motivate the client to participate in the care plan.
- Therefore, option D is the correct answer, as it shows empathy and respect for the client's feelings, while also informing the client of the expectation and time frame for ambulation. Option D also allows the client some time to prepare mentally and physically for the activity.
Options A, B, and C are incorrect answers, as they do not address the client's emotional needs or demonstrate effective communication skills.
Option A is incorrect because it uses a threatening tone and does not acknowledge the client's feelings.
Option B is incorrect because it assumes that the client feels angry about the pain of ambulation, which may not be true or helpful.
Option C is incorrect because it appeals to authority and does not explain the rationale or benefits of ambulation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- This response might address the client's concern but doesn't directly address her dichotomous thinking or provide immediate therapeutic communication.
B) Incorrect- While showing happiness for the client's improvement is positive, this response does not address the client's behavior or engage with her dichotomous tendency.
C) Incorrect- This response acknowledges the client's liking but doesn't address the dichotomous thinking pattern or provide an effective therapeutic response.
D) Correct- answering this question encourages the client to express her concerns and perceptions, fostering communication. This approach acknowledges the client's feelings and provides an opportunity for her to discuss the issue, potentially leading to a productive conversation.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.