Find patient data below.
What actions should the nurse plan for the rest of the shift? Select all that apply.
Monitor the oxygen saturation
Discuss aggressive respiratory treatment options
Obtain a sputum culture
Allow the client to take a position of comfort
Discuss with the client potential asthma triggers
Consider positive pressure ventilation
Wean the supplemental oxygen
Prepare for deep tracheal suctioning
Correct Answer : A,D,E
A) Correct- Continuous monitoring of oxygen saturation ensures the client's oxygen levels remain within an acceptable range.
B) Incorrect - Discussing aggressive respiratory treatment options is not warranted based on the provided information. The current treatment plan includes appropriate interventions.
C) Incorrect - Obtaining a sputum culture is important for identifying infections, but it's not an immediate action in the context of the client's current symptoms.
D) Correct- Promoting comfort can help reduce anxiety and potentially improve breathing.
E) Correct- Educating the client about potential triggers supports better self-management.
F) Incorrect - Considering positive pressure ventilation is not indicated at this stage. The client's symptoms are being managed with other interventions.
G) Incorrect - Weaning supplemental oxygen is not mentioned in the patient data or nurses' notes as something that's currently necessary.
H) Incorrect - Preparing for deep tracheal suctioning is not warranted based on the patient data and the current treatment plan.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect- While a second IV site might be considered if the first one is causing significant discomfort, it's not the initial intervention. The nurse should first address the immediate concern of pain.
B) Correct- Pain at the IV site during infusion might indicate infiltration or irritation. Stopping the infusion is the most immediate intervention to prevent further discomfort and potential complications like tissue damage.
C) Incorrect- While assessing for blood return is important to ensure proper IV placement, it's not the initial intervention for managing pain caused by the infusion.
D) Incorrect- Discontinuing the IV might be considered if the pain is severe and unmanageable, but the nurse should initially try to address the discomfort without removing the IV.
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