While changing the dressing of a client who is immobile, the nurse notices the boundary of the wound has increased. Given there is a positive methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), which is the most important action for the nurse to take?
Reapply a sterile non-adhesive dressing.
Limit visitors to immediate family only.
Administer prescribed antibiotics.
Request a nutrition consult.
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect- reapplying a sterile non-adhesive dressing is not enough to address the infection.
The nurse should also clean the wound, apply topical antimicrobial agents, and change the dressing regularly.
B) Incorrect- limiting visitors to immediate family only is not a sufficient infection control measure. The nurse should also use standard precautions, such as wearing gloves, gowns, masks,
and eye protection, and educate the visitors about hand hygiene and proper disposal of contaminated items.
C) Correct- Administering prescribed antibiotics is the most important action because it can help treat the infection and prevent it from spreading to other parts of the body or to other people. MRSA is resistant to many common antibiotics, so it is essential to follow the prescription and monitor the client's response.
D) Incorrect- requesting a nutrition consult is not a priority action. While nutrition is important for wound healing, it does not directly affect the infection. The nurse should first administer antibiotics and then assess the client's nutritional status and needs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["0.75"]
Explanation
To calculate the amount of mL to administer, the PN should use the following formula:
mL = (mcg x 1 mg/1000 mcg) / (mg/mL)
Plugging in the given values, we get:
mL = (150 x 1/1000) / (0.2)
mL = 0.15 / 0.2
mL = 0.75
Therefore, the PN should administer 0.75 mL of octreotide subcutaneously.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Incorrect - The APTT value being two times the control value indicates that the client's anticoagulation is within the therapeutic range. There is no need to increase the warfarin dose.
B) Correct - With the APTT value within the target range and the PT and INR values also normal, the nurse should continue the same dose of warfarin and withhold the heparin.
C) Incorrect - Decreasing the heparin dose is not indicated, as the client's APTT is already within the therapeutic range.
D) Incorrect - Increasing the heparin dose and decreasing the warfarin dose is not necessary, as the client's anticoagulation levels are appropriate.
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