An adolescent who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?
Skipped eating lunch.
Incorrectly administered too much insulin.
Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days.
Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class.
None
None
The Correct Answer is C
A. Skipped eating lunch would more likely cause hypoglycemia rather than diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). When a person with type 1 diabetes skips a meal but still takes insulin, blood glucose levels drop, leading to hypoglycemia, not the elevated glucose and ketone production seen in DKA.
B. Incorrectly administered too much insulin would also result in hypoglycemia rather than DKA. Administering excessive insulin causes blood glucose levels to fall too low, which does not trigger the fat breakdown and ketone production that characterize DKA.
C. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days is the most likely cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Illness and infection cause the body to release stress hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline, which increase blood glucose levels and counteract insulin. In type 1 diabetes, insufficient insulin leads to hyperglycemia, fat breakdown for energy, and the production of ketones, resulting in DKA.
D. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class would not cause DKA. Consuming extra food may raise blood glucose temporarily, but it would not lead to the severe insulin deficiency and ketone production seen in DKA, especially if the adolescent took insulin as prescribed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This statement indicates that the client has reached a level of acceptance of his prognosis, as he expresses a sense of peace, gratitude, and hope. He has found sources of strength and comfort from his faith and family, and he does not show signs of denial, anger, bargaining, or depression.
The other options are not correct because:
B . This statement indicates that the client is in the stage of rationalization, as he tries to justify or minimize his condition by stating a fact that does not address his feelings or needs.
C. This statement indicates that the client is in the stage of anger, as he shows resentment and hostility towards those who challenge his optimism or reality.
D. This statement indicates that the client is in the stage of blame, as he implies that his condition could have been prevented or treated if the doctor had diagnosed it earlier.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- This response might address the client's concern but doesn't directly address her dichotomous thinking or provide immediate therapeutic communication.
B) Incorrect- While showing happiness for the client's improvement is positive, this response does not address the client's behavior or engage with her dichotomous tendency.
C) Incorrect- This response acknowledges the client's liking but doesn't address the dichotomous thinking pattern or provide an effective therapeutic response.
D) Correct- answering this question encourages the client to express her concerns and perceptions, fostering communication. This approach acknowledges the client's feelings and provides an opportunity for her to discuss the issue, potentially leading to a productive conversation.
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