An adolescent who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?
Skipped eating lunch.
Incorrectly administered too much insulin.
Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days.
Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class.
None
None
The Correct Answer is C
A. Skipped eating lunch would more likely cause hypoglycemia rather than diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). When a person with type 1 diabetes skips a meal but still takes insulin, blood glucose levels drop, leading to hypoglycemia, not the elevated glucose and ketone production seen in DKA.
B. Incorrectly administered too much insulin would also result in hypoglycemia rather than DKA. Administering excessive insulin causes blood glucose levels to fall too low, which does not trigger the fat breakdown and ketone production that characterize DKA.
C. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days is the most likely cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Illness and infection cause the body to release stress hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline, which increase blood glucose levels and counteract insulin. In type 1 diabetes, insufficient insulin leads to hyperglycemia, fat breakdown for energy, and the production of ketones, resulting in DKA.
D. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class would not cause DKA. Consuming extra food may raise blood glucose temporarily, but it would not lead to the severe insulin deficiency and ketone production seen in DKA, especially if the adolescent took insulin as prescribed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Incorrect- Pupillary response is not relevant to the assessment of mesalamine's effectiveness.
Pupillary response is often assessed in neurological or ophthalmic evaluations and is not a direct measure of gastrointestinal function or the response to mesalamine therapy.
B) Incorrect- Peripheral pulses are not directly affected by mesalamine therapy, and monitoring them would not provide insight into the medication's effectiveness. Peripheral pulses are typically assessed to evaluate circulatory status and are not specific to the evaluation of gastrointestinal conditions.
C) Correct- Mesalamine is a medication commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), such as Crohn's disease and ulcerative colitis. It helps to reduce inflammation in the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring bowel patterns is important to assess the effectiveness of mesalamine in managing the symptoms of these conditions.
D) Incorrect- Oxygen saturation is a measure of the amount of oxygen in the blood and is used to assess respiratory function. While oxygen saturation is important for overall patient assessment, it is not directly related to mesalamine's effectiveness in treating inflammatory bowel disease.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is c. Raise the side rails and notify the family to come and stay until the client is reoriented and cooperative. This intervention ensures the client’s safety and provides familiar support, which can help reorient and calm the client.
Choice A reason: Administering a prescribed narcotic antagonist assumes the agitation is due to narcotic accumulation without evidence. This could lead to unnecessary medication administration.
Choice B reason: Requesting restraints should be a last resort due to the risks of injury and increased agitation. Restraints can also lead to further complications.
Choice C reason: Raising the side rails and involving the family provides immediate safety and emotional support, which can help reorient the client. Familiar faces can be very calming and reassuring.
Choice D reason: Instructing a UAP to check on the client every 15 minutes lacks the immediate family support that can help reorient the client. Continuous monitoring is important, but family involvement is more effective.
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