An adolescent who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?

Skipped eating lunch.

Incorrectly administered too much insulin.

Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days.

Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class.

None

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Skipped eating lunch would more likely cause hypoglycemia rather than diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). When a person with type 1 diabetes skips a meal but still takes insulin, blood glucose levels drop, leading to hypoglycemia, not the elevated glucose and ketone production seen in DKA.

B. Incorrectly administered too much insulin would also result in hypoglycemia rather than DKA. Administering excessive insulin causes blood glucose levels to fall too low, which does not trigger the fat breakdown and ketone production that characterize DKA.

C. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days is the most likely cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Illness and infection cause the body to release stress hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline, which increase blood glucose levels and counteract insulin. In type 1 diabetes, insufficient insulin leads to hyperglycemia, fat breakdown for energy, and the production of ketones, resulting in DKA.

D. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class would not cause DKA. Consuming extra food may raise blood glucose temporarily, but it would not lead to the severe insulin deficiency and ketone production seen in DKA, especially if the adolescent took insulin as prescribed.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Correct - Acute dystonic reactions are involuntary muscle spasms caused by certain medications, including antipsychotic drugs. These reactions can sometimes affect the muscles of the face and neck, including the larynx. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat acute dystonic reactions. It works by blocking certain neurotransmitters that contribute to muscle spasms, helping to relieve the symptoms.

B) Incorrect - Divalproex is an anticonvulsant medication primarily used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. It is not the appropriate treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are usually caused by certain antipsychotic medications and are characterized by sudden and involuntary muscle contractions. Divalproex does not have the specific mechanism of action needed to alleviate the symptoms of acute dystonic reactions.
C) Incorrect - Isotonic crystalloid fluids are used for various purposes, such as fluid resuscitation, maintaining hydration, and balancing electrolytes. However, they are not a treatment for acute dystonic reactions. These reactions are neurological and musculoskeletal in nature and require medications with specific anticholinergic properties, like benztropine, to address the underlying issue.
D) Incorrect - Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety, sedation, and seizure control. While it can have a relaxing effect on muscles, it is not the first-line treatment for acute dystonic reactions. Anticholinergic medications like benztropine are more appropriate because they directly counteract the neurotransmitter imbalances that lead to muscle spasms in these reactions.

A. The lab results indicate myocardial damage, and the client is at risk for cardiac dysrhythmias B. The client is at risk for pulmonary embolism, and lifestyle modifications need to be implemented. C. The client is at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain and subsequent myocardial infarction (MI). D. The lab results indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), and neurological vital signs should be monitored.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Troponin I and CK-MB are cardiac enzymes that are released into the bloodstream when the heart muscle is injured or necrotic. Elevated levels of these enzymes indicate that the client has suﬀered a myocardial infarction (MI) or heart atack. The damaged heart tissue can impair the electrical conduction system of the heart and cause abnormal heart rhythms or dysrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. The PN should monitor the client's cardiac status closely and report any changes to the charge nurse.

The other options are not correct because:

The client is not at risk for pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage of a pulmonary artery by a blood clot or other material. Pulmonary embolism does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause chest pain, shortness of breath, and hypoxia.
The client is not at risk for recurrent long-term angina pain, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood ﬂow to the heart muscle due to narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. Angina pain does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can be a warning sign of an impending MI.
The lab results do not indicate risk factors for transient ischemic atack (TIA), which is a temporary interruption of blood ﬂow to a part of the brain due to a clot or plaque. TIA does not cause elevated cardiac enzymes, but it can cause neurological symptoms such as weakness, numbness, or speech difficulties.

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An adolescent who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client experiencing an acute dystonic reaction presents with a laryngeal spasm. Which treatment should the nurse prepare?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The practical nurse (PN) observes a newly hired unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is counting a client's radial pulse as seen in the picture. Which action should the PN take?

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