An adolescent who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?
Skipped eating lunch.
Incorrectly administered too much insulin.
Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days.
Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class.
None
None
The Correct Answer is C
A. Skipped eating lunch would more likely cause hypoglycemia rather than diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). When a person with type 1 diabetes skips a meal but still takes insulin, blood glucose levels drop, leading to hypoglycemia, not the elevated glucose and ketone production seen in DKA.
B. Incorrectly administered too much insulin would also result in hypoglycemia rather than DKA. Administering excessive insulin causes blood glucose levels to fall too low, which does not trigger the fat breakdown and ketone production that characterize DKA.
C. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days is the most likely cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Illness and infection cause the body to release stress hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline, which increase blood glucose levels and counteract insulin. In type 1 diabetes, insufficient insulin leads to hyperglycemia, fat breakdown for energy, and the production of ketones, resulting in DKA.
D. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class would not cause DKA. Consuming extra food may raise blood glucose temporarily, but it would not lead to the severe insulin deficiency and ketone production seen in DKA, especially if the adolescent took insulin as prescribed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- While the history of vomiting is important to assess, it may not be the most crucial information to gather at this point, as the client is postoperative and the focus is on immediate postoperative care.
B) Incorrect- While assessing for fluid intake is important, the client's refusal of ice chips is not an urgent concern compared to other potential complications, such as pain management, oxygenation, and fluid balance.
C) Incorrect- These assessments are important, but the client's history of right hemicolectomy and the current infusion and medication administration require closer attention to fluid balance, pain control, and oxygenation.
D) Correct- While all options are important to consider, the most critical information in this scenario is assessing peripheral pulses and the range of motion of both legs. A right hemicolectomy involves abdominal surgery and decreased or absent peripheral pulses along with a limited range of motion could indicate impaired circulation, thrombosis, or other post-operative complications. These findings might necessitate prompt intervention to prevent potential complications.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- An oil retention enema is used to soften the stool and lubricate the rectum, making it easier to pass the stool. It is usually oil-based and contains 90-120 ml of solution.
- The temperature of the enema solution affects the effectiveness and comfort of the procedure. If the solution is too hot or cold, it can cause pain, cramps, or damage to the rectal tissue³. If the solution is too warm, it can also stimulate peristalsis and cause the client to expel the enema before it has time to work.
- The ideal temperature for an enema solution is close to the client’s body temperature, which is around 98°F or 36°C. This temperature ensures that the solution is comfortable and does not cause adverse reactions.
Option A is incorrect because the client’s comfort level may not reflect the optimal temperature for the enema.
Option B is incorrect because the temperature of the enema does affect its effectiveness and safety.
Option D is incorrect because the temperature is too high and can cause harm to the client.

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