An adolescent who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?
Skipped eating lunch.
Incorrectly administered too much insulin.
Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days.
Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class.
None
None
The Correct Answer is C
A. Skipped eating lunch would more likely cause hypoglycemia rather than diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). When a person with type 1 diabetes skips a meal but still takes insulin, blood glucose levels drop, leading to hypoglycemia, not the elevated glucose and ketone production seen in DKA.
B. Incorrectly administered too much insulin would also result in hypoglycemia rather than DKA. Administering excessive insulin causes blood glucose levels to fall too low, which does not trigger the fat breakdown and ketone production that characterize DKA.
C. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days is the most likely cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Illness and infection cause the body to release stress hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline, which increase blood glucose levels and counteract insulin. In type 1 diabetes, insufficient insulin leads to hyperglycemia, fat breakdown for energy, and the production of ketones, resulting in DKA.
D. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class would not cause DKA. Consuming extra food may raise blood glucose temporarily, but it would not lead to the severe insulin deficiency and ketone production seen in DKA, especially if the adolescent took insulin as prescribed.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect- While monitoring urinary output is important for overall assessment, it is not the most critical intervention in this situation of suspected stroke. The client's neurological symptoms take precedence.
B) Incorrect- Positioning might be relevant to preventing complications, but it is not the highest priority intervention in this situation. The focus should be on assessing the client's neurological status and determining appropriate intervention.
C) Incorrect- Although head positioning is relevant for intracranial pressure management, it is not the immediate priority. The nurse should first assess the time of symptom onset and determine if the client is experiencing an acute stroke.
D) Correct- The client's symptoms, including sudden severe headache, facial numbness, facial droop, and weakness on one side, are suggestive of a stroke. The nurse should prioritize assessing the time of symptom onset, as time is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate intervention. Rapid intervention can improve outcomes in stroke cases, especially when considering interventions like thrombolytic therapy. The other options are not as directly relevant to the immediate management of a suspected stroke.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This is the most important information for the PN to ask because it assesses the client's risk for self-harm and suicidal ideation. The client's statements indicate hopelessness, low self-esteem, and impaired functioning, which are potential warning signs of suicide. The PN should ask the client directly about any thoughts or plans of harming themselves and provide support and safety measures as needed.
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