The nurse is continuing to assist with the care of the client.

Nurses' Notes.

0900: 0930: Client is at 31 weeks of gestation and presents with a severe headache unrelieved by acetaminophen.

Client also reports urinary frequency and decreased fetal movement.

Client is a. gravida 3, para 2 with one preterm birth.

Client reports a constant and throbbing headache and rates their pain as a 6 on a scale of 0 to 10.

Denies visual disturbances.

+3 pitting edema in bilateral lower extremities.

Patellar reflex 4+ without the presence of clonus.

Client reports occasional nighttime leg cramps.

Reports 3 fetal movements within the last 30 min.

External fetal monitor applied with a. baseline FHR 140/min with occasional accelerations and moderate variability.

No uterine contractions noted.

The nurse is reviewing the findings.

For each finding, click to specify if the finding is consistent with preeclampsia or HELLP syndrome.

Each finding may support more than one disease process.

Blood pressure

Hemoglobin

Platelet count

Alanine aminotransferase

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"A,B"},"D":{"answers":"B"}}

Blood pressure: This finding is consistent with preeclampsia, but not HELLP syndrome. Preeclampsia is defined as new-onset hypertension (systolic blood pressure ≥140 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure ≥90 mmHg) after 20 weeks of gestation, with or without proteinuria. HELLP syndrome is a severe form of preeclampsia that involves hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, but does not necessarily cause hypertension. Hemoglobin: This finding is consistent with HELLP syndrome, but not preeclampsia.

Hemolysis is one of the main features of HELLP syndrome, which causes a decrease in hemoglobin levels. Preeclampsia does not typically affect hemoglobin levels, unless there is significant blood loss or hemodilution.

Platelet count: This finding is consistent with both preeclampsia and HELLP syndrome. Low platelets (thrombocytopenia) are a common complication of preeclampsia, especially in severe cases. They are also a diagnostic criterion for HELLP syndrome, which requires a platelet count of less than 100,000/mm3.

Alanine aminotransferase: This finding is consistent with HELLP syndrome, but not preeclampsia. Elevated liver enzymes are another hallmark of HELLP syndrome, which indicates liver damage and inflammation. Preeclampsia may cause mild elevations of liver enzymes, but not to the same extent as HELLP syndrome.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

"Prednisone can cause blood glucose levels to increase." Rationale: This statement is accurate. Prednisone is a corticosteroid medication known to cause hyperglycemia (high blood glucose levels) as a side effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client's blood glucose levels while they are taking prednisone, especially if the client has preexisting diabetes or risk factors for diabetes.

Choice B rationale:

"Older adults are at risk for developing type 1 diabetes mellitus." Rationale: This statement is incorrect. Type 1 diabetes mellitus typically develops in childhood or early adulthood and is characterized by autoimmune destruction of the insulin-producing cells in the pancreas. Older adults are more at risk for developing type 2 diabetes, which is different from type 1 diabetes in terms of its etiology and pathophysiology.

Choice C rationale:

"Having COPD causes blood glucose levels to fluctuate." Rationale: This statement is not accurate. COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease) primarily affects the respiratory system and does not directly cause blood glucose level fluctuations. Blood glucose levels can be affected indirectly in some cases due to factors like medications or stress associated with the illness, but it is not a direct result of COPD.

Choice D rationale:

"Albuterol treatments can cause blood glucose levels to decrease." Rationale: This statement is not a typical effect of albuterol treatments. Albuterol is a bronchodilator commonly used to treat respiratory conditions like COPD and asthma. It is not known to cause significant decreases in blood glucose levels.

A. "You will need an annual TB skin test to see if the infection has returned.” B. "You can expect the medications to turn your urine a blue-green color.” C. "You are no longer contagious when you have negative sputum cultures.” D. "You will take medication to treat your illness for the rest of your life.”

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

The nurse should inform the client that they will need periodic TB skin tests to monitor for any reactivation of the infection. This is important for assessing the client's response to treatment and ensuring early detection of any recurrence.

Choice B rationale:

Medications for tuberculosis can cause various side effects, but turning urine a blue-green color is not a common side effect associated with these medications. Providing accurate information about potential side effects is important for informed decision-making, but this statement is not accurate.

Choice C rationale:

The correct response is to inform the client that they are no longer contagious when they have negative sputum cultures. This is an important point to emphasize as it ensures that the client understands when it is safe to be around others without the risk of transmitting the infection.

Choice D rationale:

Telling the client that they will take medication for the rest of their life is incorrect and not appropriate for active pulmonary tuberculosis. Tuberculosis treatment typically involves a combination of medications taken for a specified duration, usually several months, until the infection is effectively treated.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is assisting in the care of an older adult client who has COPD and is receiving albuterol treatments and 20 mg of prednisone twice daily.The client asks why the nurse is checking his blood glucose level.Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis.Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who has bipolar disorder. The client yells at the nurse whenever medication changes are prescribed by the client's provider. The nurse should identify that the client is using which of the following defense mechanisms?

A nurse is caring for a 3-year-old child who has acute bacterial conjunctivitis of the right eye and has been prescribed bacitracin ophthalmic ointment. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is postpartum about the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine.Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

A charge nurse is discussing confidentiality requirements with a newly licensed nurse when sharing a client's medical information.Which of the following individuals should the charge nurse identify as appropriate with whom to share client information?

A nurse is caring for a client who has AIDS.Which of the following solutions should the nurse use to disinfect the client's overbed table following a blood spill?

A client who has type 1 diabetes mellitus asks a nurse about beginning an exercise regimen.Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A nurse is assisting with a prenatal examination of a client who is at 8 weeks of gestation.The nurse notes that the client's vagina and vulva are a purplish color.The nurse should document this finding as which of the following?

A nurse is reviewing laboratory findings for three clients.Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse expect for a client who has cirrhosis?