A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
"You will need an annual TB skin test to see if the infection has returned."
"You will take medication to treat your illness for the rest of your life."
"You can expect the medications to turn your urine a blue-green color."
"You are no longer contagious when you have negative sputum cultures."
The Correct Answer is D
When a client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) receives appropriate treatment and their sputum cultures consistently show negative results for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, it indicates that the client is no longer contagious. Negative sputum cultures indicate that the infectious bacteria are no longer present or viable in the respiratory secretions, reducing the risk of transmitting the disease to others.
"You will need an annual TB skin test to see if the infection has returned": While it is important for individuals with a history of TB to undergo periodic screening, such as an annual TB skin test or interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA), to detect latent TB infection or potential reactivation, this response is not specifically related to a client with active pulmonary TB.
"You will take medication to treat your illness for the rest of your life": This response is incorrect because active pulmonary TB is typically treated with a combination of antimicrobial medications for a specific duration, usually ranging from 6 to 9 months. It is not a lifelong treatment.
However, individuals with latent TB infection may require longer-term treatment to prevent the development of active TB disease.
"You can expect the medications to turn your urine a blue-green color": This response is incorrect as medications used to treat TB do not typically cause urine discoloration. Medications such as rifampin can cause various side effects, including orange discoloration of bodily fluids like urine, tears, or sweat, but a blue-green color is not associated with TB medications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the opening of the cervix. One of the hallmark signs of placenta previa is painless vaginal bleeding, typically bright red in color. This bleeding can occur spontaneously or during activities that put pressure on the uterus, such as sexual intercourse or physical exertion.
A rigid abdomen is not typically associated with placenta previa. It may indicate other conditions, such as peritonitis or abdominal muscle rigidity, but it is not a characteristic finding of placenta previa.
Persistent uterine contractions are not typically associated with placenta previa. Placenta previa is more commonly associated with painless bleeding rather than contractions. However, if placenta previa is complicated by other factors, such as placental abruption, contractions and abdominal pain may be present.
Fetal movement is not directly related to placenta previa. Fetal movement can vary from person to person and does not specifically indicate placenta previa. However, it is important for the nurse to assess fetal well-being in clients with placenta previa as bleeding can impact the oxygen supply to the fetus.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Answer: (C) The client is not grimacing
Rationale:
A) The client's blood pressure has been reduced:
While morphine can lower blood pressure due to its vasodilatory effects, a reduction in blood pressure is not necessarily a primary indicator of a therapeutic response to pain relief. It is more important to assess pain relief directly through the client's subjective experience and behavior rather than focusing on vital signs alone.
B) The client exhibits diaphoresis:
Diaphoresis, or sweating, can occur as a side effect of morphine administration but does not indicate that the medication is effectively relieving pain. In fact, diaphoresis might signal an adverse reaction or discomfort rather than a therapeutic effect.
C) The client is not grimacing:
The absence of grimacing suggests that the client's pain has decreased, which is a direct indicator of a therapeutic response to morphine. Observing a reduction in pain-related behaviors, such as grimacing, is a key assessment for determining the effectiveness of pain management in postoperative clients.
D) The client has an elevated heart rate:
An elevated heart rate may be a sign of unresolved pain or a side effect of morphine but is not a clear indicator of pain relief. Effective pain management with morphine typically results in a decrease in sympathetic nervous system responses, such as a high heart rate, rather than an increase.
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