The nurse is caring for a client who has begun vomiting.
The nurse is aware that which part of the client’s brain has been stimulated?
Limbic system.
Hypothalamus.
Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ).
Medulla oblongata.
The Correct Answer is C
The CTZ has to be stimulated in order for vomiting to occur. The CTZ is located in the area postrema of the medulla oblongata and receives input from various sources, such as the blood, the vestibular system, and the gastrointestinal tract.
Choice A is wrong because the limbic system involves emotion, not vomiting or other forms of GI function.
Choice B is wrong because the hypothalamus regulates various functions such as body temperature, hunger, thirst, and circadian rhythms, but not vomiting.
Choice D is wrong because the medulla oblongata is responsible for autonomic functioning such as ventilation, cardiac conduction, and vomiting, but it is not the site of stimulation for vomiting.
The medulla oblongata contains the vomiting center, which receives signals from the CTZ and other sources and initiates the act of vomiting.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This is because phenothiazines are contraindicated in patients with suspected or established subcortical brain damage. Phenothiazines can cause central nervous system effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, and extrapyramidal symptoms that may worsen the condition of a client with a brain injury.
Choice B is wrong because phenothiazines are not contraindicated in clients with ischemic heart disease.
However, they should be used with caution as they can cause hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias.
Choice C is wrong because phenothiazines are not contraindicated in pediatric clients.
However, they should be used with caution as they can cause sedation, anticholinergic effects, and paradoxical excitement.
Choice D is wrong because phenothiazines are not contraindicated in clients with type 2 diabetes.
However, they should be used with caution as they can cause hyperglycemia and alter the effects of antidiabetic drugs.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Tolbutamide is preferred for clients with renal dysfunction, who may not be able to excrete chlorpropamide, because it is more easily cleared from the body.
Choice B. Tolazamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that is used less frequently and is usually tried after tolbutamide and chlorpropamide have been shown to be ineffective.
Choice C. Chlorpropamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that may accumulate in clients with renal dysfunction and cause hypoglycemia.
Choice D. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic agent, not an oral antidiabetic agent.
First-generation sulfonylureas are oral antidiabetic agents that stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas.
They are used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus.
The normal range of blood glucose level is 70 to 110 mg/dL.
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