After administering propylthiouracil (PTU), what effect would the nurse anticipate the drug will have in the client’s body?
To suppress the hypothalamus’s production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH).
To suppress the anterior pituitary gland’s secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
To inhibit production of thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland.
To destroy part of the thyroid gland.
The Correct Answer is C
Propylthiouracil (PTU) is an antithyroid drug that blocks the synthesis of thyroid hormones by interfering with the oxidation of iodine and the coupling of iodotyrosines.
This reduces the levels of triiodothyronine (T) and thyroxine (T) in the blood and relieves the symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
Choice A is wrong because PTU does not destroy any part of the thyroid gland.
It only inhibits the production of thyroid hormones within the gland.
Choice B is wrong because PTU does not suppress the anterior pituitary gland’s secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
TSH is a hormone that stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones.
PTU does not affect the feedback loop between the hypothalamus, pituitary, and thyroid glands.
Choice D is wrong because PTU does not suppress the hypothalamus’s production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH).
TRH is a hormone that stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete TSH.
PTU does not affect the feedback loop between the hypothalamus, pituitary, and thyroid glands.
Normal ranges for T are 80 to 220 ng/dL, for T are 4.5 to 11.2 mcg/dL, and for TSH are 0.4 to 4.0 mIU/L.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Tolbutamide is preferred for clients with renal dysfunction, who may not be able to excrete chlorpropamide, because it is more easily cleared from the body.
Choice B. Tolazamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that is used less frequently and is usually tried after tolbutamide and chlorpropamide have been shown to be ineffective.
Choice C. Chlorpropamide is wrong because it is a first-generation sulfonylurea that may accumulate in clients with renal dysfunction and cause hypoglycemia.
Choice D. Chlorpromazine is wrong because it is an antipsychotic agent, not an oral antidiabetic agent.
First-generation sulfonylureas are oral antidiabetic agents that stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas.
They are used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus.
The normal range of blood glucose level is 70 to 110 mg/dL.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Glargine is a long-acting insulin that can provide a steady level of insulin for up to 24 hours. This would be suitable for a client who does not want to administer insulin on the plane, as they would only need one injection per day.
Choice A. Aspart is wrong because aspart is a rapid-acting insulin that has a peak effect within 1 to 3 hours and lasts for 3 to 5 hours.
This would require frequent injections and monitoring of blood glucose levels.
Choice B. Lispro is wrong because lispro is also a rapid-acting insulin that has a similar onset and duration as aspart.
It would not provide adequate coverage for a long international flight.
Choice C. Glulisine is wrong because glulisine is another rapid-acting insulin that has an onset of 15 minutes and a duration of 2 to 4 hours.
It would also require multiple injections and frequent blood glucose checks.
Normal ranges for blood glucose levels are 70 to 130 mg/dL before meals and less than 180 mg/dL after meals.
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