The nurse is caring for a client with neurogenic diabetes insipidus and administers what drug to treat the condition.
Desmopressin.
Methylprednisolone.
Dexamethasone.
Physostigmine.
The Correct Answer is A
Desmopressin is a synthetic analog of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) that acts on the kidneys to increase water reabsorption and decrease urine output. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus is a condition caused by a deficiency of ADH due to damage to the hypothalamus or pituitary gland. Patients with this condition have excessive thirst and urination, dehydration, and low urine specific gravity.
Choice B. Methylprednisolone is wrong because it is a corticosteroid that suppresses inflammation and immune response.
It is not used to treat diabetes insipidus.
Choice C. Dexamethasone is wrong because it is also a corticosteroid that has similar effects as methylprednisolone.
It is not used to treat diabetes insipidus.
Choice D. Physostigmine is wrong because it is a cholinesterase inhibitor that increases the levels of acetylcholine in the body.
It is used to treat myasthenia gravis and anticholinergic poisoning.
It has no effect on diabetes insipidus.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Metoclopramide is a medication that increases muscle contractions in the upper digestive tract and speeds up the rate at which the stomach empties into the intestines. It is used to treat gastroparesis (slow stomach emptying) in people with diabetes, which can cause heartburn and stomach discomfort after meals.
Choice A is wrong because impaction is a condition where a large mass of dry, hard stool becomes stuck in the rectum and cannot be passed.
Metoclopramide does not treat impaction, but laxatives or enemas may be used instead.
Choice C is wrong because encopresis is a condition where a child over the age of 4 has involuntary bowel movements, usually due to chronic constipation.
Metoclopramide does not treat encopresis, but behavioral therapy, laxatives, or dietary changes may be used instead.
Choice D is wrong because metoclopramide is not used for clients requiring diagnostic procedures involving the stomach or intestines.
However, it may be used to prevent nausea and vomiting caused by chemotherapy or surgery.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A 12-year-old child with obsessive-compulsive disorder is not typically a candidate for misoprostol, as it is not indicated for this condition.
B. A 46-year-old trial lawyer with hypertension might need caution when using misoprostol, as it can cause diarrhea and abdominal pain, which could be problematic.
C. An 83-year-old client with rheumatoid arthritis is the best candidate for misoprostol, particularly if they are taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for their condition. Misoprostol is often used to prevent NSAID-induced gastric ulcers in patients at high risk, such as elderly individuals or those with a history of ulcers.
D. A 22-year-old pregnant client should not be given misoprostol unless it is used for specific obstetric indications under close supervision. Misoprostol can induce uterine contractions and is contraindicated in pregnancy unless used for medical reasons like inducing labor or treating postpartum hemorrhage.
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